Practica 80 preguntas originales de Cambridge C2 Proficiency sobre Reading and Use of English: gramática, vocabulario, lectura, escritura y estrategia de examen con soluciones detalladas.
Nivel: Cambridge C2 ProficiencyDificultad: advanced80 preguntas90 min
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Pregunta 1
Choose the word closest in meaning to 'assuage'.
Assuage means to make an unpleasant feeling less intense. Ease captures this sense, while worsen, ignore and hide describe different actions.
Pregunta 2
Under no circumstances ______ the confidential files.
Under no circumstances triggers inversion, so the modal should comes before the subject employees. This emphatic structure is standard in formal English.
Pregunta 3
The charity relies on the ______ of volunteers who give their time freely.
Generosity is the quality of being willing to give, which matches volunteers giving time freely. The other nouns suggest unwillingness or unkindness.
Pregunta 4
In the CPE Use of English paper, the open cloze task requires candidates to ______.
Part 2 of CPE Reading and Use of English is an open cloze, where candidates supply a single grammatical or lexical word for each gap without options.
Pregunta 5
The report must be submitted by Friday, ______ the committee will consider it late.
Otherwise introduces the consequence of failing to meet the condition. Therefore and although do not fit this cause-and-effect warning.
Pregunta 6
Choose the word closest in meaning to 'indispensable'.
Indispensable describes something so important that it cannot be done without. Essential is the closest synonym among the options.
Pregunta 7
By this time next month, the renovation ______.
By plus a future time signals the future perfect. Will have been completed shows the renovation will already be finished before that future moment.
Pregunta 8
The reviewer praised the film's ______ plot, calling it original and unpredictable.
Inventive means creative and original, matching praise for an unpredictable plot. Conventional, contrived and formulaic all suggest something predictable or unoriginal.
Pregunta 9
The politician's response was carefully ______ to avoid answering the journalist's direct question.
Worded means expressed in particular words, so the response was deliberately phrased to evade the question. Spelt, voiced and sounded do not fit this context.
Pregunta 10
Had the evidence been disclosed earlier, the trial ______ a very different outcome.
The inverted conditional expresses an unreal past situation, so the main clause needs might have plus the past participle had.
Pregunta 11
In CPE Reading Part 8 multiple matching, distractors often ______.
Multiple matching questions use paraphrase and repeated vocabulary to mislead. Candidates must compare meaning, not just word matches, before choosing a text.
Pregunta 12
In a CPE essay, a counterargument should be ______.
Strong CPE essays acknowledge opposing views and then refute them with evidence. This shows critical thinking and keeps the argument balanced.
Pregunta 13
Not until the final audit was published ______ the extent of the losses.
Not until at the start of a sentence triggers inversion in the main clause, requiring the auxiliary did before shareholders.
Pregunta 14
Choose the word closest in meaning to 'obfuscate'.
Obfuscate means to make something unclear or difficult to understand. Confuse matches this meaning, while the other options suggest making things clearer.
Pregunta 15
When answering CPE Reading Part 6 gapped text questions, you should first ______.
Cohesion clues such as pronouns, conjunctions and repeated concepts connect each missing sentence to its context. Reading around the gap is the reliable method.
Pregunta 16
The board suggested that the proposal ______ until the next quarter.
Suggest that introduces the subjunctive, so the passive uses be plus the past participle. This formal structure appears frequently in CPE grammar tasks.
Pregunta 17
Choose the correct collocation: The new evidence serves to ______ the earlier theory.
Corroborate is a transitive verb meaning to support with evidence, so it takes a direct object. The other forms add an incorrect preposition or change the verb form.
Pregunta 18
In the CPE report task, the most appropriate tone is ______.
Reports in CPE require a formal, objective register with clear headings and recommendations. Humorous or emotional language would undermine the task.
Pregunta 19
It is imperative that every applicant ______ the original documents to the interview.
After imperative that, the subjunctive uses the base form of the verb regardless of the subject. This formal requirement structure is common in CPE.
Pregunta 20
Choose the word closest in meaning to 'pragmatic'.
Pragmatic describes a realistic, practical approach to problems rather than an idealistic or rigid one. Theoretical and dogmatic are both contrasts.
Pregunta 21
So intricate ______ the design that the engineers spent weeks decoding it.
So at the start of a sentence causes inversion, and the singular subject design requires the past simple was.
Pregunta 22
In CPE Reading and Use of English Part 4, the key word ______.
The key word must appear exactly as given in every transformation. Changing its form or omitting it invalidates the answer, and it may only be used once.
Pregunta 23
In CPE Reading and Use of English, you lose marks for incorrect answers, so you should leave difficult questions blank.
CPE does not penalise incorrect answers, so leaving blanks is unnecessary. Guessing strategically after eliminating distractors gives candidates a better chance.
Pregunta 24
The sentence 'Scarcely had the guests arrived when the power failed' is grammatically correct.
Scarcely had plus past participle creates a correct inversion structure, and when introduces the following event. This pattern is standard in formal English.
Pregunta 25
The words 'infer' and 'imply' can be used interchangeably because both describe the same speaker action.
Infer describes the listener drawing a conclusion, while imply describes the speaker suggesting something. Using them interchangeably changes the meaning of a sentence.
Pregunta 26
In CPE Reading Part 5, a correct answer can be selected solely because an option uses the same vocabulary as the text.
Correct answers rest on meaning and paraphrase, not simple word matching. Identical vocabulary often appears in distractors that distort the text's actual claim.
Pregunta 27
Which sentences use the subjunctive correctly?
The subjunctive requires the base form after verbs like insist, order and propose. Arrives and was reviewed use indicative forms, so only the first and third are correct.
Pregunta 28
Which strategies are appropriate for CPE Reading Part 7 multiple matching?
Underlining question key words and matching ideas by meaning are effective strategies. Slow full translation wastes time, and leaving all rereading until the end is inefficient.
Pregunta 29
Match each CPE writing genre to its required structure.
Each CPE writing genre has a distinct format. Essays argue, reports inform objectively, reviews evaluate, and proposals persuade with a structured plan.
Pregunta 30
Match each grammatical structure to its correct example.
Each option illustrates the named structure: inverted negative adverbial, wh-cleft emphasis, full inversion after a place adverbial, and a mixed conditional.
Pregunta 31
Choose the word closest in meaning to 'ubiquitous'.
Ubiquitous means present everywhere at the same time, so omnipresent is the nearest match. Obsolete, sporadic, and irrelevant each describe a different quality, making them incorrect.
Pregunta 32
The diplomat spoke with such ______ that even hostile delegates found her hard to distrust.
Candour means frank, honest openness, which fits a diplomat others find difficult to distrust. Lethargy is tiredness, bravado is false boldness, and pedantry is excessive attention to minor rules.
Pregunta 33
Choose the correct sentence.
With neither...nor, the verb agrees with the nearer subject, so plural trustees takes were. The singular verbs ignore the closest subject, and the last option uses the wrong passive form.
Pregunta 34
In CPE Reading and Use of English Part 1, what is the most reliable first step?
Reading the whole text first gives context for lexical choices such as collocation and register. Guessing immediately or translating options risks selecting answers without understanding the surrounding sentence.
Pregunta 35
In a CPE Reading text, the phrase 'this is not to say that' usually signals that the writer will ______.
The expression warns readers that a contrast or qualification follows, not a completely new topic. Recognising discourse markers like this helps candidates follow the writer's reasoning.
Pregunta 36
In CPE Use of English Part 2, which word class is most likely to be missing from a gap?
Open cloze tasks usually test grammatical words such as prepositions, pronouns, and determiners. Proper nouns and loanwords are rarely tested because they cannot be guessed from grammar.
Pregunta 37
Although the report appeared balanced, it was later exposed as a thinly veiled ______ for the company's policies.
An apologia is a formal written defence of a position, fitting the idea of a disguised justification. Synthesis blends ideas, a caveat is a warning, and a digression strays from the topic.
Pregunta 38
The committee rejected the proposal on the grounds that its cost projections were ______.
Chimerical means wildly impractical or imaginary, which suits unreliable cost projections. Unimpeachable means beyond doubt, perspicuous means clearly expressed, and trenchant means sharply incisive.
Pregunta 39
After years of failed negotiations, the two parties finally reached a ______ agreement.
A modus vivendi is a practical compromise allowing opposing parties to coexist. Carte blanche means unrestricted freedom, status quo is the existing state, and force majeure refers to extraordinary circumstances.
Pregunta 40
Scarcely ______ the auditorium when the fire alarm began to ring.
Scarcely requires inversion with the past perfect: scarcely had plus subject plus past participle. This structure shows that entering happened immediately before the alarm.
Pregunta 41
Choose the sentence that correctly uses an inverted conditional.
In formal conditionals, were may replace if and invert with the subject: were the offer to be withdrawn. The other options mix tenses or leave inversion incomplete.
Pregunta 42
In CPE Use of English Part 3, which strategy is most effective for the given word?
Part 3 requires a different form of the given word, so prefixes and suffixes are key. Keeping the word unchanged or writing synonyms ignores the task's grammatical focus.
Pregunta 43
When answering CPE Reading Part 7, candidates should first ______.
Underlining key words in questions gives a clear target for scanning short texts. Reading only the end or memorising the passage wastes time and risks missing paraphrases.
Pregunta 44
During the CPE Writing paper, what should you do before drafting your answer?
Analysing the task guarantees the correct register, format, and content coverage. Choosing blindly, skipping planning, or copying the rubric usually produces an off-target response.
Pregunta 45
In a CPE essay, which sentence best demonstrates a measured, academic tone?
The first option uses hedged, impersonal language suitable for academic writing. Absolute, emotional, or colloquial phrasing undermines the detached tone expected in a C2 essay.
Pregunta 46
Which transformation best matches: 'People believe the treasure was hidden by pirates'?
The passive reporting structure uses is believed to have been hidden because the hiding happened before the belief. The other options mix active and passive forms incorrectly.
Pregunta 47
Choose the option that correctly uses a cleft sentence for emphasis.
A what-cleft front focuses the object: what plus clause plus be plus highlighted element. The other options scramble the word order and lose grammatical coherence.
Pregunta 48
The lecture began with a lengthy ______ on the history of the discipline before reaching the main argument.
A disquisition is a detailed formal discussion, fitting a long historical introduction. A diatribe is a bitter attack, a truism is an obvious statement, and a lament is an expression of sorrow.
Pregunta 49
The critic praised the film for resisting the ______ temptations of the blockbuster genre.
Siren works as an adjective meaning dangerously alluring, recalling the mythological singers' irresistible call. Sphinx, chimera, and hydra do not collocate with temptations in standard English.
Pregunta 50
Choose the sentence that correctly uses fronting with a negative adverbial.
Negative adverbial fronting requires subject-auxiliary inversion: under no circumstances plus may plus subject. The other options fail to invert or scramble the auxiliary.
Pregunta 51
In CPE Use of English Part 4, which answer would lose marks under official marking rules?
Transformation tasks require both grammatical accuracy and meaning preservation. A correct-sounding sentence that shifts meaning fails the task, regardless of word count or spelling.
Pregunta 52
In CPE Reading Part 6, a paragraph that introduces an idea only to reject it immediately is best described as ______.
The structure concedes a point and then counters it, a common pattern in opinion texts. Recognising it helps candidates choose the correct gapped sentence.
Pregunta 53
True or false: In CPE Reading and Use of English, you should transfer all answers to the answer sheet only at the very end of the exam.
Leaving the transfer until the end risks losing answers if time runs out. Regular transfer after each part is safer, though final checking is still recommended.
Pregunta 54
True or false: In a CPE review, a balanced evaluation must give equal space to positive and negative points.
Reviews need a clear overall judgement, not mechanical balance. Candidates may emphasise strengths or weaknesses as long as the evaluation is justified and consistent.
Pregunta 55
True or false: In CPE Use of English Part 2, the missing word is always a content word such as a noun or verb.
Part 2 mostly tests grammatical words like prepositions, pronouns, and linkers. Content words can appear, but they are not the dominant pattern in the task.
Pregunta 56
True or false: In CPE Reading Part 8, options in the text that repeat the exact wording of a question are always correct.
Exact wording matches are often traps; the exam prefers paraphrases and subtle meaning shifts. Candidates should check evidence for each option against the question.
Pregunta 57
Select the two sentences that are grammatically acceptable.
Not only can invert the auxiliary in formal style or stay in normal order with not only before the verb. The third option fails to invert, and the fourth repeats did with a past form.
Pregunta 58
Select the two strategies that help with CPE Reading Part 6 (gapped text).
Cohesive links and continuity of tense, pronouns, and topic reveal the correct gapped sentence. Skipping surrounding text or rewriting from memory ignores the evidence needed.
Pregunta 59
Match each CPE writing task to its purpose. A: proposal, B: review, C: report, D: essay.
A proposal persuades, a review evaluates, a report presents findings, and an essay develops an argument. Matching purpose to format prevents register errors in the writing paper.
Pregunta 60
Match each CPE Use of English part to its key focus. A: Part 1, B: Part 2, C: Part 3, D: Part 4.
Part 1 offers word choices, Part 2 is an open cloze, Part 3 forms derivatives, and Part 4 transforms sentences. Knowing each focus prevents wasted time on the wrong strategy.
Pregunta 61
Which word best completes the sentence? The committee remained ______ to the mayor's proposal, refusing to change its position.
Adamant means firmly refusing to change one's mind, which fits a committee that will not alter its position. Amenable suggests willingness, equivocal suggests ambiguity, and reticent suggests quietness or reserve.
Pregunta 62
Choose the correct form: If she ______ about the meeting, she would have arrived earlier.
This is a third conditional, used for unreal past situations. The if-clause takes the past perfect had known, while the main clause uses would have arrived.
Pregunta 63
In the idiom 'to be at a loose end', what does the person lack?
At a loose end describes someone with no particular task or occupation, so the person lacks something to do. The other options suggest financial, emotional, or spatial concerns that the idiom does not convey.
Pregunta 64
What is the main purpose of skimming a CPE reading text on the first pass?
Skimming gives a general sense of topic, tone, and organisation, which helps candidates locate information later. Translating every word, memorising details, or counting paragraphs is neither efficient nor required for CPE comprehension tasks.
Pregunta 65
Which register is most appropriate for a CPE informal email?
An informal email to a friend uses a warm, conversational register with contractions and natural idioms. Legalistic, impersonal academic, or abrupt telegraphic styles suit other genres and would sound wrong in this task.
Pregunta 66
Which option keeps the meaning of this sentence? 'It was foolish of him to lend the money.' He ______ the money.
Should not have lent expresses criticism of a past action, matching the idea that lending was foolish. Need not have lent means it was unnecessary, could implies ability, and must expresses a strong deduction.
Pregunta 67
In the CPE open cloze, which type of word is most often tested?
The open cloze focuses on grammar and coherence, so answers are usually function words like prepositions, determiners, pronouns, or linking devices. Content vocabulary is more likely to appear in the multiple-choice cloze than in Part 2.
Pregunta 68
Choose the sentence that uses inversion correctly.
After negative adverbials like never, the auxiliary moves before the subject, giving Never had she seen. The other options keep normal word order or misplace the auxiliary, so they are not correct inverted structures.
Pregunta 69
In CPE multiple-choice reading questions, why should you base your answer on the text rather than your own opinion?
CPE reading tasks test comprehension of what the writer actually says, so the credited option is the one the passage supports. Personal knowledge can mislead candidates, while the text itself remains the only reliable evidence for the answer.
Pregunta 70
What does the idiom 'to pull out all the stops' mean?
To pull out all the stops means to use every available resource and make a maximum effort, originally from organ stops. The other options misinterpret the idiom as withdrawal, delay, or a literal mode of transport.
Pregunta 71
Which sentence is best suited to a CPE review of a novel?
A review should evaluate style and effect with precise critical language, as the first option does. Buying details, physical facts, and personal obedience add little analysis and do not develop a balanced critical response.
Pregunta 72
Choose the correct verb form: The proposal, which ______ in committee for months, was finally approved.
Past perfect progressive had been languishing shows an ongoing state completed before another past event, approval. Simple present, present perfect, or conditional forms do not place the delay clearly before the past decision.
Pregunta 73
Which strategy is most effective during the first listening in the CPE Listening paper?
The first listening lets candidates identify the gist and answer confident items; the second listening confirms choices and resolves uncertain ones. Writing full sentences, abandoning the text, or ignoring the stems wastes time and weakens accuracy.
Pregunta 74
Which word best fits? The government introduced the measure to ______ inflation, but the effect was modest.
To curb means to restrain or limit something, such as inflation, which fits a government measure. Kindle means to ignite, exacerbate means to make worse, and overlook means to fail to notice.
Pregunta 75
Complete the key word transformation using the word 'matter': 'However long you practise, luck still decides the outcome.' No matter ______, luck still decides the outcome.
No matter how introduces a concession clause meaning regardless of, so how long you practise fits grammatically and semantically. The other forms use incorrect quantifiers, word order, or a missing subject, all of which would fail the transformation task.
Pregunta 76
Which statement about CPE Reading and Use of English Part 6 is correct?
Part 6 presents four related texts and asks candidates to match statements with the writer who expresses that view. Filling one gap, choosing a title, and transforming sentences describe other parts of the paper and are not Part 6.
Pregunta 77
Which of the following are features of a strong CPE essay? Select all that apply.
A strong CPE essay develops a clear position in ordered paragraphs, maintains formal register, and addresses both task points with evaluation. Colloquial slang undermines the required academic tone and would lower the mark for style.
Pregunta 78
Which of the following sentences are grammatically acceptable at C2 level? Select all that apply.
Both correct options use inversion after negative adverbials: Not until and scarcely require subject-auxiliary inversion. The third lacks the auxiliary before he, and the fourth pairs hardly with than, which belongs to no sooner, making both unacceptable.
Pregunta 79
Match each advanced idiom to its meaning.
Burn the midnight oil means working late, while taking something with a pinch of salt means doubting its truth. Being in two minds describes indecision, and letting the cat out of the bag means disclosing a secret unintentionally.
Pregunta 80
Match each CPE Writing genre to its defining purpose.
An article engages a general readership with an opinion, while a review evaluates a cultural product or service. A report presents findings for a named reader, and a proposal recommends action to persuade its audience.