FRM Part 1 Practice Questions

Practice 80 FRM Part 1 questions covering foundations of risk management, quantitative analysis, financial markets and products, valuation and risk models, market risk, credit risk, operational risk, and liquidity risk with answers and explanations.

Level: FRM Part 1 Difficulty: intermediate 80 questions 60 min
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Question 1

Which of the following best describes the primary responsibility of a firm's board of directors in risk governance?

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Question 2

In an enterprise risk management (ERM) framework, which role is most closely associated with the chief risk officer (CRO)?

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Question 3

A bank's risk appetite statement is most appropriately described as which of the following?

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Question 4

Under the 2017 COSO ERM framework, which component addresses how risk management activities are governed and integrated with strategy?

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Question 5

Which of the following best characterizes the three-pillar structure of the Basel framework?

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Question 6

A portfolio earned 9% with a volatility of 12% while the risk-free rate was 3%. What is the portfolio's Sharpe ratio?

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Question 7

Which statement about enterprise risk management (ERM) is most accurate?

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Question 8

Two independent events A and B have P(A) = 0.3 and P(B) = 0.4. What is P(A and B)?

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Question 9

Given P(A) = 0.5 and P(B | A) = 0.6, what is P(A and B)?

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Question 10

Under the normal distribution, approximately what percentage of observations fall within two standard deviations of the mean?

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Question 11

In the simple linear regression model Y = a + bX + e, which statement about the slope coefficient b is correct?

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Question 12

Which statement about correlation is most accurate?

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Question 13

A hypothesis test produces a p-value of 0.03. At the 5% significance level, which conclusion is correct?

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Question 14

Which statement best describes Monte Carlo simulation as used in risk measurement?

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Question 15

A portfolio has a 99% one-day VaR of USD 10 million. Which interpretation is most direct?

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Question 16

A bond pays an annual coupon of 5% and trades at a price below its par value. Which statement is true?

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Question 17

Which security represents an ownership claim with a residual claim on a company's assets after creditors are paid?

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Question 18

A call option gives the holder the right to do which of the following?

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Question 19

Which of the following best distinguishes exchange-traded futures from over-the-counter (OTC) forwards?

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Question 20

In a plain vanilla interest rate swap, the fixed-rate payer does which of the following?

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Question 21

The exchange rate is quoted as USD/EUR = 1.10. A position of USD 1 million converted at this rate is equivalent to how many euros?

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Question 22

Which money market instrument is a bank-issued, unsecured negotiable time deposit?

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Question 23

A call option has a strike price of 50 and expires when the underlying asset price is 60. What is the option's intrinsic value?

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Question 24

A 3-year zero-coupon bond has a face value of 100 and a yield to maturity of 5% with annual compounding. What is its price?

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Question 25

All else equal, which bond has the highest modified duration?

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Question 26

For a plain vanilla bond, which statement about convexity is most accurate?

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Question 27

All else equal, as the volatility of the underlying asset increases, the value of a European call option most likely:

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Question 28

In a one-step binomial option pricing model with up factor u, down factor d, and risk-free return R = 1 + r, which condition is necessary to avoid arbitrage?

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Question 29

Compared with VaR at the same confidence level, expected shortfall:

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Question 30

A bond has a modified duration of 6. If yields rise by 50 basis points, the approximate percentage change in the bond's price is:

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Question 31

Statement: In an effective enterprise risk management framework, risk limits are set only by front-office traders and never require board or senior management approval.

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Question 32

Statement: For a valid discrete probability distribution, the probabilities assigned to all mutually exclusive and exhaustive outcomes must sum to 1.

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Question 33

Statement: Exchange-traded futures contracts are marked to market daily, and both parties must maintain margin accounts with the clearinghouse.

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Question 34

Statement: Holding maturity constant, a higher coupon rate increases a bond's modified duration.

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Question 35

Which of the following are core responsibilities of a firm's board of directors in risk governance? Select all that apply.

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Question 36

Which statements about hypothesis testing are correct? Select all that apply.

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Question 37

Which of the following are characteristics of exchange-traded futures relative to OTC forwards? Select all that apply.

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Question 38

Under the standard Black-Scholes assumptions, which of the following increase the value of a European call option, all else equal? Select all that apply.

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Question 39

Match each risk governance term with its most appropriate description. For each row, select the choice that best corresponds to the term.

Question 40

Match each risk measure with its correct definition. For each row, select the choice that best corresponds to the measure.

Question 41

A portfolio has a one-day 95% VaR of USD 2.5 million. Which statement most accurately interprets this figure?

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Question 42

Compared with VaR at the same confidence level, expected shortfall (ES) is best described as:

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Question 43

A risk manager applies a historical stress scenario based on the 2008 financial crisis. Which limitation is most relevant to this approach?

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Question 44

In backtesting a 99% one-day VaR model over 250 trading days, the Basel traffic light approach uses:

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Question 45

Which item is a market risk factor in a parametric VaR model for an equity portfolio?

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Question 46

Which best describes positions held in the trading book?

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Question 47

A portfolio is valued at USD 10 million and has a daily return volatility of 1.2%. Assuming normally distributed returns, the one-day 99% VaR using a normal deviate of 2.326 is closest to:

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Question 48

Which statement describes an advantage of Monte Carlo simulation over historical simulation for estimating VaR?

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Question 49

A borrower has a one-year default probability of 2%. Assuming independent annual default events, the cumulative default probability over two years is closest to:

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Question 50

Which statement about credit ratings from agencies such as Moody's, S&P, and Fitch is most accurate?

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Question 51

Credit valuation adjustment (CVA) is best described as:

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Question 52

Under a collateral agreement with a threshold, a decline in the value of posted collateral while the bank's exposure is unchanged would most likely:

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Question 53

Current exposure in counterparty credit risk is best defined as:

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Question 54

A widening credit spread for an issuer most likely signals:

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Question 55

Expected loss (EL) for a credit exposure is calculated as:

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Question 56

If the expected recovery rate on a defaulted exposure is 40%, the loss given default (LGD) is:

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Question 57

Which item is an example of internal operational loss data?

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Question 58

Historically under Basel II, which approach to operational risk capital allowed a bank to use internal loss data and internal models, subject to supervisory approval?

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Question 59

Scenario analysis is used in operational risk management primarily to:

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Question 60

A compensating control is best described as:

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Question 61

Which is a key operational risk concern when a bank outsources a critical business process?

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Question 62

Which event is best classified as cyber-related operational risk?

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Question 63

A key risk indicator (KRI) in operational risk management is best described as:

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Question 64

Funding liquidity risk is best defined as the risk that:

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Question 65

Market liquidity risk refers to the risk that:

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Question 66

The Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) requires a bank to hold:

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Question 67

The Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) is designed to ensure that:

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Question 68

A primary purpose of liquidity stress testing is to:

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Question 69

In asset-liability management, a maturity mismatch in which liabilities mature earlier than assets primarily creates:

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Question 70

Which assets are classified as Level 1 high-quality liquid assets (HQLA) under the LCR?

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Question 71

Expected shortfall is always greater than or equal to VaR at the same confidence level and horizon.

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Question 72

A credit rating assigned by an agency gives an exact probability of default for a specific issuer.

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Question 73

Under the Basel Basic Indicator Approach, operational risk capital is calculated as a fixed percentage of a bank's average gross income.

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Question 74

The Liquidity Coverage Ratio is measured over a 30-calendar-day stress horizon.

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Question 75

Which statements about backtesting a VaR model are correct? Select all that apply.

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Question 76

Which factors would increase the credit valuation adjustment (CVA) for a derivative exposure? Select all that apply.

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Question 77

Which events are examples of operational risk? Select all that apply.

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Question 78

Which actions would most likely improve a bank's Liquidity Coverage Ratio? Select all that apply.

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Question 79

Match each operational risk term to its correct definition.

Question 80

Match each liquidity risk concept to its correct description.