Latih 80 soalan FRM Bahagian 1 merangkumi asas pengurusan risiko, analisis kuantitatif, pasaran dan produk kewangan, penilaian dan model risiko, risiko pasaran, kredit, operasi dan kecairan, dengan jawapan dan penjelasan.
Tahap: FRM Part 1Kesukaran: intermediate80 soalan60 min
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Soalan 1
Which of the following best describes the primary responsibility of a firm's board of directors in risk governance?
The board of directors approves the firm's risk appetite, oversees the risk management framework, and reviews significant exposures. Day-to-day execution belongs to front office and risk management staff, while capital calculations are typically prepared by finance or risk functions. Board responsibility is oversight rather than direct model ownership.
Soalan 2
In an enterprise risk management (ERM) framework, which role is most closely associated with the chief risk officer (CRO)?
The CRO is responsible for the firm-wide risk profile, including identifying, measuring, monitoring, and reporting risks to the board and senior management. Compensation design, trading execution, and external financial audit are separate functions. The CRO role provides independent oversight of risk-taking activities.
Soalan 3
A bank's risk appetite statement is most appropriately described as which of the following?
The risk appetite statement sets out the aggregate level and types of risk the firm is willing to accept in pursuit of its strategic objectives. It is implemented through risk limits such as VaR, earnings-at-risk, and capital thresholds. It is a governance document, not a guarantee against losses or a uniform regulatory requirement.
Soalan 4
Under the 2017 COSO ERM framework, which component addresses how risk management activities are governed and integrated with strategy?
The COSO ERM framework has five components: governance and culture, strategy and objective-setting, performance, review and revision, and information, communication, and reporting. Governance and culture establish board oversight, organizational values, and accountability for risk. The other components support execution, learning, and reporting rather than the overall governance structure.
Soalan 5
Which of the following best characterizes the three-pillar structure of the Basel framework?
Pillar 1 sets minimum capital requirements, Pillar 2 provides for supervisory review of risks not fully captured in Pillar 1, and Pillar 3 promotes market discipline through disclosure. The Basel standards also include specific risk-type charges and liquidity measures, but these are not the three pillars. Governance functions such as internal and external audit support the framework rather than define it.
Soalan 6
A portfolio earned 9% with a volatility of 12% while the risk-free rate was 3%. What is the portfolio's Sharpe ratio?
The Sharpe ratio equals the excess return divided by volatility, or (9% - 3%) / 12% = 0.50. Option (b) divides the total return by volatility, option (c) divides the volatility minus the risk-free rate by the return, and option (d) divides volatility by total return. Only option (a) correctly uses the excess return over the risk-free rate.
Soalan 7
Which statement about enterprise risk management (ERM) is most accurate?
ERM considers the firm's full portfolio of risks and how they interact, allowing diversification and netting effects to be recognized. It does not eliminate risk, and firms still need capital allocation and risk limits to implement the framework. ERM is used by banks, insurers, and other organizations across industries.
Soalan 8
Two independent events A and B have P(A) = 0.3 and P(B) = 0.4. What is P(A and B)?
For independent events, the joint probability equals the product of the individual probabilities: 0.3 times 0.4 = 0.12. Option (c) is the sum of the probabilities, which would apply only to mutually exclusive events. The other options are arithmetic errors.
Soalan 9
Given P(A) = 0.5 and P(B | A) = 0.6, what is P(A and B)?
The multiplication rule states that P(A and B) = P(A) times P(B | A), so 0.5 times 0.6 = 0.30. Option (a) uses the conditional probability incorrectly, and options (c) and (d) treat the probabilities as additive or divide instead of multiply. Only option (b) follows the multiplication rule.
Soalan 10
Under the normal distribution, approximately what percentage of observations fall within two standard deviations of the mean?
For a normal distribution, roughly 68% of observations lie within one standard deviation, 95% within two, and 99.7% within three. The 95% figure reflects the well-known two-standard-deviation rule. The other choices correspond to other intervals or common approximations.
Soalan 11
In the simple linear regression model Y = a + bX + e, which statement about the slope coefficient b is correct?
The slope b gives the expected change in the dependent variable per one-unit change in the independent variable. The correlation coefficient is bounded between -1 and 1, but the slope is not, and the slope depends on the units of X. Changing the units of X rescales b rather than leaving it unchanged.
Soalan 12
Which statement about correlation is most accurate?
Pearson correlation captures linear association, so two variables can have zero correlation yet be strongly dependent in a nonlinear way. Rank-based measures are invariant to monotonic transformations, but Pearson correlation is not. Correlation can be negative, zero, or positive.
Soalan 13
A hypothesis test produces a p-value of 0.03. At the 5% significance level, which conclusion is correct?
Because the p-value of 0.03 is below the 5% significance level, the test result provides sufficient evidence to reject the null hypothesis. Rejection is a statistical decision, not proof that the alternative is certainly true. Failing to reject would be the correct action only if the p-value exceeded 5%.
Soalan 14
Which statement best describes Monte Carlo simulation as used in risk measurement?
Monte Carlo simulation draws a large number of random paths or scenarios from assumed probability distributions and uses the resulting payoff distribution to estimate statistics such as VaR or option prices. The estimates contain sampling error that decreases as the number of simulations increases. Distributional assumptions are essential to the method.
Soalan 15
A portfolio has a 99% one-day VaR of USD 10 million. Which interpretation is most direct?
VaR is a quantile of the loss distribution, so a 99% one-day VaR of USD 10 million means only a 1% probability that the loss exceeds USD 10 million on any given day. The expected loss conditional on the tail can differ from the VaR amount. VaR does not set a hard maximum loss.
Soalan 16
A bond pays an annual coupon of 5% and trades at a price below its par value. Which statement is true?
When a bond trades below par, it is a discount bond, and the yield to maturity must be higher than the coupon rate to compensate investors for the capital gain to par at maturity. A bond at par has yield equal to the coupon, and a premium bond has yield below the coupon. Therefore only option (b) is consistent with a price below par.
Soalan 17
Which security represents an ownership claim with a residual claim on a company's assets after creditors are paid?
Common stockholders own the firm and have a residual claim on assets and earnings after all debt holders and preferred shareholders are satisfied. Bonds and commercial paper are debt claims with priority, while preferred stock has priority over common stock. Therefore common stock is the ownership security described.
Soalan 18
A call option gives the holder the right to do which of the following?
A call option confers the right, but not the obligation, to buy the underlying asset at the strike price. A put option confers the right to sell. Options do not convert into forwards, and the call writer is obligated to sell the underlying if the holder exercises.
Soalan 19
Which of the following best distinguishes exchange-traded futures from over-the-counter (OTC) forwards?
Exchange-traded futures have standardized terms and are cleared through a central clearinghouse with daily marking to market and margin requirements. OTC forwards are bilateral agreements with customized terms and are typically settled at maturity. These differences affect liquidity, counterparty risk, and flexibility.
Soalan 20
In a plain vanilla interest rate swap, the fixed-rate payer does which of the following?
In a plain vanilla interest rate swap, one party pays a fixed rate and receives a floating rate, while the counterparty does the opposite. The notional principal is generally not exchanged at initiation; it is used only to calculate payments. Both parties face interest rate risk because the value of their payment streams changes with rates.
Soalan 21
The exchange rate is quoted as USD/EUR = 1.10. A position of USD 1 million converted at this rate is equivalent to how many euros?
The quote USD/EUR = 1.10 means one euro costs 1.10 U.S. dollars. Dividing USD 1 million by 1.10 gives approximately EUR 0.909 million. Option (b) reverses the conversion, and the other choices reflect arithmetic errors.
Soalan 22
Which money market instrument is a bank-issued, unsecured negotiable time deposit?
A certificate of deposit is an unsecured time deposit issued by a bank, often in negotiable form, and is a common money market instrument. Commercial paper is typically issued by corporations, Treasury bills by the government, and repurchase agreements are collateralized loans. Therefore the certificate of deposit matches the description.
Soalan 23
A call option has a strike price of 50 and expires when the underlying asset price is 60. What is the option's intrinsic value?
The intrinsic value of a call equals the maximum of the underlying price minus the strike price and zero, or max(60 - 50, 0) = 10. Option (a) would apply if the underlying were at or below the strike. Options (c) and (d) use the strike or underlying price directly instead of the difference.
Soalan 24
A 3-year zero-coupon bond has a face value of 100 and a yield to maturity of 5% with annual compounding. What is its price?
The price is the face value discounted over three years: 100 / (1.05)^3 = approximately 86.38. Option (a) uses continuous compounding, option (c) discounts over only two years, and option (d) discounts over one year. Only option (b) matches annual compounding over the full three-year horizon.
Soalan 25
All else equal, which bond has the highest modified duration?
Duration increases with time to maturity and decreases with coupon size. The 10-year 2% coupon bond dominates the 5-year bonds in maturity and has a lower coupon than the 10-year 8% bond. Therefore it has the highest modified duration.
Soalan 26
For a plain vanilla bond, which statement about convexity is most accurate?
Positive convexity means the price-yield curve bends upward, so actual price gains from falling yields exceed duration-based estimates and actual price losses from rising yields are smaller than duration-based estimates. As a result, duration alone overstates declines and understates gains. A convexity adjustment improves the approximation for larger yield changes.
Soalan 27
All else equal, as the volatility of the underlying asset increases, the value of a European call option most likely:
Higher volatility increases the probability of large favorable price moves while the call's downside is limited to the premium paid, so the option value rises. This is a core insight of option pricing theory. Options never have negative value because the holder has the right, not the obligation, to exercise.
Soalan 28
In a one-step binomial option pricing model with up factor u, down factor d, and risk-free return R = 1 + r, which condition is necessary to avoid arbitrage?
If R is outside the range spanned by u and d, an arbitrage can be constructed by borrowing or lending against the stock's possible payoffs. The condition d < R < u ensures that a replicating portfolio with positive state prices exists. The up probability does not need to equal 0.5, and the risk-free rate need not be zero.
Soalan 29
Compared with VaR at the same confidence level, expected shortfall:
Expected shortfall is the probability-weighted average of losses beyond the VaR quantile, so it captures tail severity that VaR ignores. Because it averages losses in the tail, expected shortfall is at least as large as the corresponding VaR. It is a coherent risk measure and provides more information about extreme outcomes.
Soalan 30
A bond has a modified duration of 6. If yields rise by 50 basis points, the approximate percentage change in the bond's price is:
The approximate percentage price change equals the negative of modified duration times the yield change, or -6 times 0.005 = -0.03, which is -3.0%. Option (a) treats 50 basis points as 0.5 instead of 0.005, and option (d) uses a 100 basis point change. Option (c) has the wrong sign.
Soalan 31
Statement: In an effective enterprise risk management framework, risk limits are set only by front-office traders and never require board or senior management approval.
Risk limits should be established within the risk appetite approved by the board and monitored by independent risk management. Allowing traders to set their own limits creates a conflict of interest and weakens control. The statement is false.
Soalan 32
Statement: For a valid discrete probability distribution, the probabilities assigned to all mutually exclusive and exhaustive outcomes must sum to 1.
A valid probability distribution assigns nonnegative probabilities to every possible outcome, and the sum of those probabilities must equal 1. This requirement follows from the axioms of probability. The statement is true.
Soalan 33
Statement: Exchange-traded futures contracts are marked to market daily, and both parties must maintain margin accounts with the clearinghouse.
Futures positions are settled daily through variation margin, and initial margin is posted by both sides. Daily marking to market substantially reduces counterparty credit risk relative to OTC forwards. The statement is true.
Soalan 34
Statement: Holding maturity constant, a higher coupon rate increases a bond's modified duration.
Higher coupons return a larger share of cash flows earlier, which reduces a bond's duration. All else equal, a low-coupon bond has a longer duration than a high-coupon bond of the same maturity. The statement is false.
Soalan 35
Which of the following are core responsibilities of a firm's board of directors in risk governance? Select all that apply.
The board approves the risk appetite, oversees management's execution of the framework, and reviews material exposures and framework effectiveness. Trade execution belongs to the front office, and tax preparation belongs to finance or compliance. Together, options (a), (b), and (d) reflect the board's oversight responsibilities.
Soalan 36
Which statements about hypothesis testing are correct? Select all that apply.
A Type I error is rejecting a true null, and a Type II error is failing to reject a false null. Power equals one minus the Type II error probability and generally decreases when the significance level is lowered. The p-value is the smallest significance level at which the null can be rejected, so options (a), (b), (d), and (e) are correct.
Soalan 37
Which of the following are characteristics of exchange-traded futures relative to OTC forwards? Select all that apply.
Futures are standardized, centrally cleared, and marked to market daily, which reduces counterparty risk. OTC forwards are customized bilateral contracts with settlement at maturity. The clearinghouse reduces credit risk but does not make default impossible.
Soalan 38
Under the standard Black-Scholes assumptions, which of the following increase the value of a European call option, all else equal? Select all that apply.
A call's value increases with volatility, the risk-free rate, time to expiration, and the underlying price relative to the strike. A lower strike price makes the call more in the money, while higher volatility expands the range of favorable outcomes. Lower volatility reduces option value, so option (e) is incorrect.
Soalan 39
Match each risk governance term with its most appropriate description. For each row, select the choice that best corresponds to the term.
Risk appetite defines the aggregate risk the firm is willing to accept, and risk limits translate that appetite into binding constraints. ERM coordinates risk management across the whole firm, while residual risk is what remains after controls are applied.
Soalan 40
Match each risk measure with its correct definition. For each row, select the choice that best corresponds to the measure.
Macaulay duration is the present-value-weighted average time to cash flows, and modified duration converts that into price sensitivity to yield changes. Convexity captures the curvature of the price-yield relationship, while expected shortfall measures average tail losses beyond VaR.
Soalan 41
A portfolio has a one-day 95% VaR of USD 2.5 million. Which statement most accurately interprets this figure?
VaR states a loss threshold that will not be exceeded with a given confidence level over a specified horizon. At the 95% confidence level, the loss is expected to exceed the VaR figure only 5% of the time. VaR does not describe a guaranteed or exact loss amount.
Soalan 42
Compared with VaR at the same confidence level, expected shortfall (ES) is best described as:
Expected shortfall is the probability-weighted average loss conditional on the loss exceeding the VaR threshold. Because it uses the distribution of tail losses, ES is more sensitive than VaR to the shape of the tail. ES is generally greater than or equal to VaR at the same confidence level.
Soalan 43
A risk manager applies a historical stress scenario based on the 2008 financial crisis. Which limitation is most relevant to this approach?
Historical stress scenarios rely on past episodes, so they may not reflect new correlations, instruments, or market structures. They are useful for assessing how a portfolio would have performed, but they cannot guarantee coverage of future tail events. Stress testing supplements rather than replaces VaR and other risk measures.
Soalan 44
In backtesting a 99% one-day VaR model over 250 trading days, the Basel traffic light approach uses:
Backtesting counts exceptions, which are days when the actual loss exceeds the VaR estimate. Under the Basel framework for a 250-day sample at the 99% confidence level, 0 to 4 exceptions are in the green zone, 5 to 9 are in the yellow zone, and 10 or more are in the red zone. A high exception count signals that the model may underestimate risk.
Soalan 45
Which item is a market risk factor in a parametric VaR model for an equity portfolio?
Market risk factors are the observable variables that drive portfolio value, such as equity index returns, interest rates, exchange rates, and commodity prices. A parametric VaR model maps portfolio positions to these factors and uses their volatilities and correlations. Employee counts, complaints, and audit schedules are not market risk factors.
Soalan 46
Which best describes positions held in the trading book?
The trading book contains instruments held with trading intent or to hedge other trading book positions, and they are generally marked to market. Banking book positions are more typically held to maturity or for customer relationships. The trading book is associated with market risk, while the banking book is more associated with credit and interest rate risk.
Soalan 47
A portfolio is valued at USD 10 million and has a daily return volatility of 1.2%. Assuming normally distributed returns, the one-day 99% VaR using a normal deviate of 2.326 is closest to:
Parametric VaR is calculated as portfolio value multiplied by the standard deviation and the normal deviate. The calculation is 10,000,000 x 0.012 x 2.326, which equals 279,120. This represents the loss threshold expected to be exceeded only 1% of the time over one day.
Soalan 48
Which statement describes an advantage of Monte Carlo simulation over historical simulation for estimating VaR?
Monte Carlo simulation generates many hypothetical paths from assumed distributions, so the risk manager can set current volatility, correlation, and other parameters. Historical simulation uses past returns directly and may lag changes in market conditions. Monte Carlo is computationally intensive and does require random number generation.
Soalan 49
A borrower has a one-year default probability of 2%. Assuming independent annual default events, the cumulative default probability over two years is closest to:
The survival probability for one year is 98%, so the two-year survival probability is 0.98 x 0.98 = 96.04%. The cumulative default probability is therefore 1 - 0.9604 = 3.96%. This is slightly less than 4% because the second-year default event requires surviving the first year.
Soalan 50
Which statement about credit ratings from agencies such as Moody's, S&P, and Fitch is most accurate?
Credit ratings classify issuers into broad categories that reflect relative expected default risk. They are ordinal measures, so a rating does not imply an exact probability of default for a specific issuer. Ratings are reviewed periodically and do not guarantee against default.
Soalan 51
Credit valuation adjustment (CVA) is best described as:
CVA adjusts the risk-free valuation of a derivative to reflect the possibility that the counterparty may default. It is calculated from expected exposure, the counterparty's default probability, and loss given default. A higher counterparty credit risk leads to a larger downward CVA adjustment.
Soalan 52
Under a collateral agreement with a threshold, a decline in the value of posted collateral while the bank's exposure is unchanged would most likely:
Collateral reduces credit exposure only to the extent that it covers the exposure net of thresholds and minimum transfer amounts. When collateral value falls, less protection is available against the current exposure. The bank may need to issue a margin call, but until it is met, uncollateralized exposure rises.
Soalan 53
Current exposure in counterparty credit risk is best defined as:
Current exposure reflects what the bank would lose today if the counterparty defaulted, which is the positive mark-to-market value of netted transactions. It is the starting point for measuring potential future exposure. Collateral, netting, and future changes in value are handled separately in exposure models.
Soalan 54
A widening credit spread for an issuer most likely signals:
Credit spreads compensate investors for default risk, liquidity risk, and other credit-related risks. When spreads widen, the market is demanding more compensation, which usually reflects higher default probability or lower recovery expectations. A rating upgrade would typically narrow the spread.
Soalan 55
Expected loss (EL) for a credit exposure is calculated as:
Expected loss is the product of the probability of default, the loss severity given default, and the exposure at default. This formulation allows a bank to estimate the average loss from a credit exposure. Unexpected loss and economic capital are then assessed around this expected level.
Soalan 56
If the expected recovery rate on a defaulted exposure is 40%, the loss given default (LGD) is:
Loss given default is the percentage of exposure lost when a default occurs. It is equal to 1 minus the recovery rate, so 1 - 0.40 = 0.60. Higher recovery rates reduce LGD and therefore reduce expected loss.
Soalan 57
Which item is an example of internal operational loss data?
Operational losses arise from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, systems, or external events. Internal loss data are collected from the bank's own operational loss events, such as settlement failures, fraud, or system outages. Market movements and borrower defaults are not operational losses.
Soalan 58
Historically under Basel II, which approach to operational risk capital allowed a bank to use internal loss data and internal models, subject to supervisory approval?
The AMA permitted banks to quantify operational risk capital using internal loss data, scenario analysis, and business environment and internal control factors, subject to supervisory approval. The BIA and Standardised Approach rely on gross income-based formulas. The Internal Ratings-Based Approach applies to credit risk, not operational risk.
Soalan 59
Scenario analysis is used in operational risk management primarily to:
Scenario analysis combines expert judgment and plausible stress scenarios to assess losses from events such as fraud, cyber attacks, or business disruption. It supplements historical loss data, which may not contain enough severe events. The results support capital estimates, risk appetite, and contingency planning.
Soalan 60
A compensating control is best described as:
Compensating controls provide alternative protection when the primary control is weak, missing, or has failed. They lower residual risk and are often documented in risk assessments and audit findings. They do not eliminate risk but reduce the likelihood or impact of losses.
Soalan 61
Which is a key operational risk concern when a bank outsources a critical business process?
Outsourcing transfers activities but not the underlying operational risk, and the bank remains responsible to regulators and clients. The provider may fail to deliver, suffer outages, or expose data, creating concentration and continuity risk. Outsourcing requires vendor due diligence, contracts, monitoring, and exit plans.
Soalan 62
Which event is best classified as cyber-related operational risk?
Cyber risk falls within operational risk because it involves failures of systems and security controls that can cause financial loss or disruption. A ransomware attack can halt processing, destroy data, and create reputational harm. Interest rate moves, borrower defaults, and rate-driven withdrawals belong to market, credit, and liquidity risk respectively.
Soalan 63
A key risk indicator (KRI) in operational risk management is best described as:
KRIs are forward-looking metrics linked to operational risk drivers, such as failed transaction rates, staff turnover, or system downtime. They alert management when risk is increasing so action can be taken before losses materialize. They complement, rather than replace, internal loss data and scenario analysis.
Soalan 64
Funding liquidity risk is best defined as the risk that:
Funding liquidity risk is the risk that a firm lacks sufficient cash or access to funding to meet payment obligations. It can arise from deposit outflows, maturing wholesale funding, or impaired market access. Unacceptable losses may be required to liquidate assets or obtain emergency funding.
Soalan 65
Market liquidity risk refers to the risk that:
Market liquidity risk is the risk that a position cannot be unwound quickly at a price close to its fair value. Illiquid assets trade with wide bid-ask spreads and large price impacts, which is especially costly during stress. Funding liquidity risk and market liquidity risk can reinforce each other during a crisis.
Soalan 66
The Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) requires a bank to hold:
The LCR compares the stock of high-quality liquid assets (HQLA) with expected net cash outflows over 30 calendar days under a severe stress scenario. A ratio of at least 100% ensures the bank can survive the stress horizon without relying on new funding. The NSFR, not the LCR, addresses the one-year structural funding horizon.
Soalan 67
The Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) is designed to ensure that:
The NSFR promotes a sustainable funding structure by requiring available stable funding to cover required stable funding over one year. Assets with longer maturities and lower liquidity receive higher required stable funding factors. It complements the LCR, which focuses on the 30-day horizon.
Soalan 68
A primary purpose of liquidity stress testing is to:
Liquidity stress testing projects cash inflows and outflows under scenarios such as deposit runs, wholesale funding withdrawal, and market-wide crises. The results identify potential funding gaps and support contingency funding plans and early warning indicators. Stress testing cannot eliminate interest rate risk.
Soalan 69
In asset-liability management, a maturity mismatch in which liabilities mature earlier than assets primarily creates:
When liabilities come due before assets, the bank must refinance them, and funding may be unavailable or costly. This is refinancing risk, a component of funding liquidity risk. The mismatch also exposes the bank to interest rate risk when rates change before the assets mature.
Soalan 70
Which assets are classified as Level 1 high-quality liquid assets (HQLA) under the LCR?
Level 1 HQLA have the highest liquidity and can be included without haircuts under the LCR rules, subject to operational requirements. They include cash, central bank reserves, and certain high-quality government securities. Level 2 assets have haircuts and are subject to caps.
Soalan 71
Expected shortfall is always greater than or equal to VaR at the same confidence level and horizon.
Expected shortfall is the average loss conditional on exceeding the VaR threshold, so it is at least as large as the VaR figure. This property holds by construction for a continuous loss distribution. ES therefore provides additional information about the severity of tail losses.
Soalan 72
A credit rating assigned by an agency gives an exact probability of default for a specific issuer.
Credit ratings are ordinal categories that rank relative default risk, not precise default probabilities. Two issuers with the same rating can have different expected default rates. Ratings should therefore be used alongside quantitative credit models and market information.
Soalan 73
Under the Basel Basic Indicator Approach, operational risk capital is calculated as a fixed percentage of a bank's average gross income.
The Basic Indicator Approach applies a fixed alpha factor, historically 15%, to the average of positive annual gross income over three years. It is the simplest Basel operational risk approach and does not use internal loss data. More advanced approaches use additional risk-sensitive inputs.
Soalan 74
The Liquidity Coverage Ratio is measured over a 30-calendar-day stress horizon.
The LCR requires HQLA to cover projected net cash outflows over 30 calendar days under a defined stress scenario. The 30-day horizon reflects the period during which a bank should be able to take corrective actions. The NSFR uses a one-year horizon.
Soalan 75
Which statements about backtesting a VaR model are correct? Select all that apply.
Backtesting evaluates model accuracy by comparing actual outcomes with VaR forecasts and counting exceptions. The Basel traffic light approach maps exception counts into green, yellow, and red zones for a 250-day sample. Zero exceptions can still indicate a conservative or poorly specified model, so it does not prove perfect calibration.
Soalan 76
Which factors would increase the credit valuation adjustment (CVA) for a derivative exposure? Select all that apply.
CVA rises with the counterparty's probability of default and the expected loss given default. Larger expected positive exposure also increases the amount that could be lost. Full collateralization and short maturities with no exposure reduce CVA, not increase it.
Soalan 77
Which events are examples of operational risk? Select all that apply.
Operational risk arises from failed processes, people, systems, or external events, so system outages, internal fraud, and cyber attacks qualify. An equity market crash is market risk, and a borrower default is credit risk. These categories are separate in the risk taxonomy used by banks and regulators.
Soalan 78
Which actions would most likely improve a bank's Liquidity Coverage Ratio? Select all that apply.
The LCR is the ratio of HQLA to net cash outflows over 30 days, so increasing HQLA or reducing outflows improves it. Stable retail deposits have lower runoff assumptions than volatile wholesale funding, which lowers net outflows. Overnight funding and unhedged maturity extension increase outflow assumptions and weaken the ratio.
Soalan 79
Match each operational risk term to its correct definition.
Operational risk is defined by the Basel Committee as the risk of loss from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, systems, or external events. Key risk indicators monitor exposure, compensating controls reduce residual risk, and scenario analysis estimates losses from rare events. Matching these terms tests the definitions that underpin operational risk measurement.
Soalan 80
Match each liquidity risk concept to its correct description.
The LCR focuses on 30-day survival using high-quality liquid assets, while the NSFR promotes stable funding over one year. Market liquidity risk concerns the ease of selling assets, and funding liquidity risk concerns the ability to meet payment obligations. The two forms of liquidity risk can interact during stress.