Practice 80 ACT English and Math questions covering grammar, punctuation, sentence structure, reading comprehension, algebra, geometry, data analysis, and problem solving.
Level: ACTDifficulty: intermediate80 questions55 min
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Question 1
Which sentence uses commas correctly?
A nonessential clause such as who trained for years should be set off with a comma before and after it.
Question 2
Choose the correct verb: The list of requirements ___ long.
The subject is list, not requirements, so the singular verb is agrees with it.
Question 3
Every student must bring ___ own calculator.
With a singular indefinite subject such as every student, formal ACT style uses a singular possessive pronoun.
Question 4
___ the storm, the festival continued.
Despite is a preposition that can introduce a noun phrase and expresses contrast with the rest of the sentence.
Question 5
She enjoys hiking, swimming, and ___.
Items in a series should keep the same grammatical form, so biking matches hiking and swimming.
Question 6
The test was difficult, ___ we finished on time.
But correctly shows contrast: the test was difficult, yet the work was completed on time.
Question 7
The essay was strong; ___, the conclusion felt rushed.
However signals a contrast between the strong essay and the rushed conclusion.
Question 8
The ___ decision affected every student.
A singular possessive is needed because the decision belongs to one teacher.
Question 9
Which option is a complete sentence?
A complete sentence needs a subject and a predicate; The train arrived has both and expresses a full thought.
Question 10
Which revision fixes the dangling modifier: Pushing hard, the door would not open.
The revised sentence gives the action a clear subject: I pushed hard, but the door would not open.
Question 11
Please ___ the invitation.
Accept means to receive or agree to something; the sentence asks someone to accept the invitation.
Question 12
Which is the most concise revision of: Due to the fact that it rained, the game was delayed.
Because it rained is concise, grammatically complete, and keeps the original meaning.
Question 13
The first attempt failed. ___, the team tried a new approach.
Therefore links the failure to the logical result: trying a new approach.
Question 14
When she entered the room, everyone ___ talking.
The past-tense verb entered sets the time, so stopped keeps the tense consistent.
Question 15
___ did the manager choose for the promotion?
Whom is the object of the verb choose and is required in formal usage.
Question 16
___ , the students reviewed their notes.
An introductory phrase should end with a comma and be followed by the main clause.
Question 17
The ___ uniforms were freshly cleaned.
The uniforms belong to multiple players, so the plural possessive players’ is correct.
Question 18
Of the two essays, this one is ___.
Use the comparative better when comparing exactly two things. The sentence compares two essays, so the comparative form is correct, not the superlative best. More better is redundant, and most good is not standard English.
Question 19
After Maya finished her homework, ___ called her friend.
She refers clearly to Maya, the nearest singular feminine noun.
Question 20
She has always been interested ___ art history.
The correct preposition after interested is in. The phrase interested in art history is a fixed collocation in standard English, so the sentence needs in after the adjective. Interested for, interested at, and interested on are not used with this meaning.
Question 21
Which best combines: The museum was crowded. It was still worth visiting.
The combined sentence uses but to show contrast and avoids a comma splice.
Question 22
Which is most concise and formal?
The first option is direct, formal, and free of redundant wording.
Question 23
Each of the candidates ___ qualified.
Each is singular, so the singular verb is is correct even though candidates is plural.
Question 24
The technician repaired the computer ___.
The relative clause that had crashed correctly modifies computer. It tells which computer the technician repaired and stays close to its noun. Crashing and crashed alone do not form a grammatical relative clause, and had crashing is not a valid verb phrase.
Question 25
The company lost ___ operating license.
Its is the possessive form; it’s means it is. The license belongs to the company, so the sentence needs the possessive pronoun without an apostrophe. It is the subject pronoun, and its’ is not a valid English word.
Question 26
Which best states the main idea of a passage describing how urban gardens improve air, build community, and provide fresh food?
The main idea must cover all the listed benefits: air quality, community, and fresh food.
Question 27
According to the passage, urban gardens improve air quality mainly by ___.
More plants capture pollutants and improve the air, which is why plant cover is the stated cause.
Question 28
The passage states that gardens require volunteers. What can readers infer?
If gardens require volunteers, readers can infer that local people must participate.
Question 29
The word 'vibrant' in 'a vibrant neighborhood' most nearly means ___.
In context, vibrant describes an active, lively neighborhood. A vibrant area is full of energy and activity, which matches lively. Expensive and noisy add ideas not contained in the word, and isolated means the opposite of active.
Question 30
The author mentions 'fresh food' mainly to ___.
Fresh food is listed as one benefit of urban gardens, supporting the positive argument.
Question 31
Which word best describes the author's attitude toward urban gardens?
The author presents benefits positively, so the tone is supportive.
Question 32
A paragraph lists these steps: choose a site, test soil, form a team, and plant. What is the paragraph mainly about?
The steps all describe the process of starting a garden.
Question 33
Which sentence best supports the claim that gardens build community?
Neighbors meeting while gardening directly shows social connection and community building.
Question 34
According to the passage, community gardens differ from private yards because they are ___.
The passage defines community gardens as spaces shared and maintained by many people.
Question 35
In context, 'accessible' in 'fresh produce is accessible' most nearly means ___.
Accessible means people can easily reach or obtain the fresh produce.
Question 36
What is the value of 8 + 2 × 5?
Multiply first: 2 × 5 = 10, then add 8 to get 18.
Question 37
What is 25% of 80?
25% is one fourth, and 80 divided by 4 equals 20.
Question 38
If a recipe uses 3 cups of flour for 12 cookies, how many cups are needed for 36 cookies?
36 cookies are 3 times 12, so multiply 3 cups by 3 to get 9 cups.
Question 39
Solve 3x + 5 = 20.
Subtract 5 from both sides to get 3x = 15, then divide by 3 to find x = 5.
Question 40
If x + y = 10 and x - y = 4, what is x?
Add the equations: 2x = 14, so x = 7. Adding x + y = 10 and x - y = 4 eliminates y because y and -y cancel. This gives a direct way to solve for x without substitution.
Question 41
Which number is a solution to x - 3 > 5?
The inequality simplifies to x > 8, so 9 is the only solution listed.
Question 42
If f(x) = 2x + 1, what is f(4)?
Substitute 4: f(4) = 2(4) + 1 = 9. Replacing x with 4 and following order of operations gives 8 + 1, which is 9. The other choices come from misreading the function or making an arithmetic error.
Question 43
What is 2^3 × 2^2?
Add the exponents: 2^3 × 2^2 = 2^5 = 32.
Question 44
What is the square root of 144?
12 × 12 = 144, so the square root is 12. The square root of a number is the nonnegative value that multiplies by itself to give that number. Checking by squaring confirms 12, while 14 × 14 = 196 and 24 × 24 = 576.
Question 45
Which equation has a slope of 2 and a y-intercept of 3?
In slope-intercept form y = mx + b, m is the slope and b is the y-intercept.
Question 46
A shirt costs $40 and is 20% off. What is the sale price?
20% of $40 is $8, so the sale price is $40 - $8 = $32.
Question 47
What is the mean of 2, 4, 6, 8, and 10?
The sum is 30, and 30 divided by 5 is 6.
Question 48
What is the median of 3, 7, 2, 9, and 5?
Ordered from least to greatest: 2, 3, 5, 7, 9. The middle value is 5.
Question 49
A bag has 3 red and 2 blue marbles. What is the probability of choosing red?
There are 5 marbles total and 3 red, so P(red) = 3/5.
Question 50
A triangle has angles of 50° and 70°. What is the third angle?
Angles in a triangle sum to 180°, so 180 - 50 - 70 = 60°.
Question 51
What is the area of a circle with radius 3?
Area = πr² = π(3²) = 9π. The area formula squares the radius before multiplying by π. Since 3 squared is 9, the result is 9π; 6π and 12π come from using the diameter or circumference formula instead.
Question 52
A rectangle is 8 by 5. What is its perimeter?
Perimeter = 2(8 + 5) = 26. The perimeter is the distance around the rectangle, so add the length and width and double the total. The result 40 would be the area in square units, and the other choices omit one step.
Question 53
What is the volume of a rectangular box that is 3 × 4 × 5?
Volume = length × width × height = 3 × 4 × 5 = 60. Multiply the three dimensions in any order to find the space inside the box. The values 35 and 12 come from adding dimensions or multiplying only part of them.
Question 54
What is the distance between (1, 2) and (4, 6)?
The differences are 3 and 4, and the distance is the square root of 3² + 4² = 5.
Question 55
What is the slope of the line through (0, 0) and (2, 6)?
Slope = (6 - 0) / (2 - 0) = 3. Slope measures the change in y divided by the change in x between two points. Rising 6 units over a run of 2 units gives a slope of 3, so the answer is 3.
Question 56
Solve x² - 9 = 0 for the positive value of x.
x² = 9, so x = 3 or x = -3. The positive solution is 3.
Question 57
Which sentences are punctuated correctly? Select all that apply.
The first uses commas around a nonessential clause, and the third uses a semicolon between related independent clauses. The other choices contain punctuation errors.
Question 58
Which choices show correct subject-verb agreement? Select all that apply.
The singular subject group takes is, and the plural subject both takes were.
Question 59
Based on the passage, which statements are supported? Select all that apply.
Air quality and fresh produce are stated benefits; planning and replacing supermarkets are not supported.
Question 60
Which details would help support the claim that gardens build community? Select all that apply.
Neighbors meeting and volunteers sharing tools both show cooperation; the other choices contradict the claim.
Question 61
Which expressions equal 12? Select all that apply.
3 × 4 = 12 and 24 ÷ 2 = 12. The other expressions equal 8 and 11.
Question 62
Which numbers are solutions to x > 5? Select all that apply.
The inequality is strict, so 5 is not a solution; 6 and 8 are greater than 5.
Question 63
Which statements about a rectangle with length 6 and width 4 are true? Select all that apply.
Area = 6 × 4 = 24, and perimeter = 2(6 + 4) = 20.
Question 64
Which values are factors of 12? Select all that apply.
3 and 6 divide 12 evenly; 5 and 8 do not.
Question 65
A semicolon can separate two closely related independent clauses.
A semicolon is used between independent clauses that are closely related and not joined by a coordinating conjunction.
Question 66
An apostrophe is used to make most nouns plural.
Apostrophes show possession or omissions; they are not used to make most nouns plural.
Question 67
The main idea is usually the most general point the passage supports.
A main idea is broad enough to cover the passage while the details support it.
Question 68
The median is the middle value when a data set is ordered from least to greatest.
The median is found by ordering the values and locating the middle.
Question 69
The mean is always one of the values in the data set.
The mean is an average and does not have to appear in the data set itself.
Question 70
A negative number multiplied by a positive number is always negative.
The product of a negative and a positive number is negative.
Question 71
Fill in the blank: Neither of the answers ___ correct.
Neither is singular, so the singular verb is is correct.
Question 72
Write the plural possessive form of 'child': ___.
Child is an irregular plural, and the possessive is children's.
Question 73
Fill in the blank: 15% of 200 = ___.
15% means 0.15, and 0.15 × 200 = 30. Percent means per hundred, so 15% of 200 is 15/100 × 200. Dividing 200 by 100 gives 2, and 15 × 2 = 30, so the blank is 30.
Question 74
If x + 7 = 15, then x = ___.
Subtract 7 from both sides to get x = 8. Solving an equation requires keeping both sides balanced while isolating the variable. Since 15 - 7 is 8, x = 8 is the only value that makes the statement true.
Question 75
The area of a triangle with base 10 and height 6 is ___.
Area = (1/2) × base × height = (1/2) × 10 × 6 = 30.
Question 76
Match each sentence type to its example.
The complete sentence has a subject and predicate, the fragment lacks a main clause, and the run-on joins two sentences without punctuation.
Question 77
Match each text feature to its purpose.
The main idea states the broad point, the detail gives supporting evidence, and the transition word signals a shift.
Question 78
Match each expression to its value.
2 × 9 = 18, 15 - 6 = 9, and 4² = 16. Match each expression to its value by computing one at a time and checking the result. These calculations cover multiplication, subtraction, and an exponent, so each row has a distinct answer.
Question 79
Match each shape to its area formula.
A rectangle uses length times width, a triangle uses one half base times height, and a circle uses πr².
Question 80
Match each data measure to its description.
The mean is the average, the median is the middle value, and the mode is the most frequent value.