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Tahap: NCLEX-RNKesukaran: intermediate80 soalan90 min
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Soalan 1
A nurse is preparing to administer an IV medication. Which action is the most important way to prevent a medication error?
Two approved identifiers, such as name and date of birth, must be checked before every medication administration. Family members are not a substitute for approved identifiers, and checking once at the beginning of the shift does not verify the right client at the moment of administration. Consistent verification at the bedside reduces wrong-client and wrong-medication errors.
Soalan 2
Which client should the nurse assess first?
Chills and lower back pain during a blood transfusion suggest a possible transfusion reaction, which can progress rapidly. The nurse should stop the transfusion, maintain IV access, and notify the health care provider. The other clients are stable and can be assessed after the transfusion reaction is addressed.
Soalan 3
A nurse discovers smoke in a utility room while making rounds. According to the RACE fire response, which action should the nurse take first?
RACE stands for rescue, alarm, confine, and extinguish. Removing clients from immediate danger is the first priority because client safety takes precedence over fire-fighting tasks. The alarm, containment, and extinguishing efforts follow rescue.
Soalan 4
A nurse is preparing a sterile field for a wound dressing change. Which action requires correction?
The outer 1-inch border of a sterile field is considered contaminated, so sterile items should be placed in the center of the field. Solutions should be poured from about 4 to 6 inches above the receptacle, sterile items should be kept at or above waist level, and the field should remain in view. These actions preserve sterility and reduce infection risk.
Soalan 5
Before administering any medication, the nurse must verify the client's identity with at least two approved identifiers, such as name and date of birth.
Two approved identifiers, typically name and date of birth, must be used to confirm client identity before medication administration. Room numbers, bed labels, and family statements are not acceptable identifiers. This verification is a core medication safety practice.
Soalan 6
Match each vaccine with the schedule description that best fits it.
Hepatitis B is often given as a birth dose and continued during infancy. MMR is routinely given as a first dose at 12 to 15 months with a second dose at 4 to 6 years. Tdap is recommended at 11 to 12 years with catch-up for older adolescents and adults, while the rotavirus series starts at 2 months and is completed by 8 months.
Soalan 7
A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with hypertension about lowering sodium intake. Which meal choice indicates that the teaching was effective?
Fresh or minimally processed foods such as grilled chicken, steamed vegetables, and a baked potato are naturally lower in sodium. Canned soups, deli meats, pickles, frozen breaded foods, and instant mixes are common high-sodium sources. Choosing fresh foods supports blood pressure management.
Soalan 8
A nurse is providing home safety education to an older adult at risk for falls. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
Clear walking paths, night lights, secure handrails, and low storage for frequently used items reduce fall risk in older adults. Throw rugs, high shelving, and avoiding handrails increase the chance of falling. Home safety education should emphasize environmental and behavioral changes that support safe mobility.
Soalan 9
A client who smokes asks why nicotine replacement therapy is recommended. Which response by the nurse is best?
Nicotine replacement therapy provides a controlled dose of nicotine to reduce withdrawal symptoms and cravings during smoking cessation. It does not guarantee abstinence or eliminate all nicotine-related health risks. Counseling and behavioral support improve success but are not required for the product to have benefit.
Soalan 10
A community health nurse is planning a health promotion program for older adults. Which interventions are appropriate? Select all that apply.
Influenza vaccination, balance and strength training, and medication reviews are evidence-based health promotion strategies for older adults. Regular physical activity is generally encouraged and modified for chronic conditions rather than avoided. Social engagement supports physical and mental health, so isolation should not be recommended.
Soalan 11
A client with depression says, No one in my family cares about me anymore. Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?
Reflecting the client's feeling validates the emotion and encourages further exploration without arguing or judging. Telling the client that the feeling is untrue dismisses the client's experience, while asking why can feel critical. Focusing on positives too quickly can minimize the client's distress.
Soalan 12
A nurse is caring for a client experiencing acute mania. Which intervention is best during the initial period?
A calm, low-stimulation environment reduces sensory overload and helps the client regain control during acute mania. Long discussions, busy rooms, and caffeine increase stimulation and can worsen agitation. Structured, simple activities provide safe outlets without overstimulating the client.
Soalan 13
A client with generalized anxiety disorder is pacing and breathing rapidly. What should the nurse do first?
Moving to a quiet area and modeling slow breathing helps lower arousal and provides a calming, supportive intervention. Telling a client to calm down invalidates the experience, and leaving the client alone removes needed support. Complex choices should be delayed until anxiety is reduced.
Soalan 14
A client with major depressive disorder tells the nurse, I am tired of waking up every morning. Which response by the nurse is the priority?
Directly assessing suicidal ideation, intent, plan, and means is the priority when a client expresses hopelessness. Asking about suicide does not plant the idea and is essential for safety. Reassurance, activity suggestions, and scheduled observation are not substitutes for a direct risk assessment.
Soalan 15
A client who expresses suicidal thoughts should have a safety plan and be monitored until suicide risk is reassessed, even if no immediate plan is identified.
Suicide risk can change quickly, so clients with suicidal thoughts need a safety plan and monitoring even when no immediate plan is identified. Risk should be reassessed regularly by a qualified professional. Removing the safety plan or monitoring prematurely increases risk.
Soalan 16
Which assessment finding is most consistent with hypokalemia?
Hypokalemia commonly causes muscle weakness, fatigue, decreased reflexes, ileus, and cardiac dysrhythmias that may produce a weak or irregular pulse. Dry mucous membranes are more typical of fluid deficit, and circumoral tingling suggests hypocalcemia. Potassium levels should be monitored closely because low levels can precipitate lethal dysrhythmias.
Soalan 17
A nurse is making rounds 6 hours after abdominal surgery. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
Visible bowel through separated wound edges is an evisceration, a surgical emergency. The nurse should cover the wound with sterile saline-soaked dressings, keep the client on nothing by mouth, and notify the health care provider immediately. Moderate pain, a low-grade fever, and an oxygen saturation of 95% do not have the same urgency.
Soalan 18
Which assessment findings are most consistent with fluid volume deficit?
Fluid volume deficit reduces circulating volume, causing tachycardia, dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, and decreased urine output. Jugular venous distention, crackles, edema, and hypertension are findings of fluid volume excess. Recognition of these signs guides fluid replacement and monitoring.
Soalan 19
A client with heart failure reports waking at night gasping for air and needing three pillows to breathe. Which action should the nurse take first?
Orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea indicate worsening heart failure and pulmonary congestion. Placing the client in high Fowler's position improves ventilation, and oxygen saturation should be assessed immediately. Fluid restriction is a provider-directed intervention, not an independent first action, and other diagnostics should not delay oxygenation.
Soalan 20
A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with chronic kidney disease. Which findings require immediate intervention? Select all that apply.
Hyperkalemia above 6.0 mEq/L or hyperkalemia with peaked T waves is life-threatening and requires immediate treatment to prevent ventricular dysrhythmias. A potassium of 5.0 mEq/L with no ECG changes is less urgent but still requires follow-up. Normal sodium and glucose levels do not require immediate intervention in this setting.
Soalan 21
The prescriber orders heparin 5,000 units subcutaneously. The vial contains 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
Using the formula desired dose divided by available dose per milliliter: 5,000 units divided by 10,000 units/mL equals 0.5 mL. The nurse should independently recalculate the dose and have a second nurse verify high-alert medications when required by policy. Correct calculation prevents anticoagulant dosing errors.
Soalan 22
Before administering digoxin, which assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?
Digoxin slows conduction through the atrioventricular node, so the apical pulse should be counted for a full minute before administration. In an adult, the dose is typically withheld and the provider notified when the apical rate is below 60 beats/min. Bradycardia and other signs of toxicity should also be monitored.
Soalan 23
A client taking levothyroxine asks what to do after forgetting the morning dose. Which response is best?
Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach at the same time each day, and a missed dose should be taken as soon as remembered unless the next dose is due. Doubling a dose can cause signs of hyperthyroidism such as palpitations and nervousness. Taking it with milk can reduce absorption.
Soalan 24
A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Warfarin reduces vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and clients should not independently take extra vitamin K because it can reduce the drug's effect and make INR management difficult. Aspirin and other antiplatelet agents increase bleeding risk and should be avoided unless prescribed. Electric razors and prompt reporting of bleeding signs are appropriate safety measures.
Soalan 25
Ciprofloxacin should be taken at the same time as an antacid containing aluminum or magnesium to reduce stomach upset.
Aluminum and magnesium antacids chelate fluoroquinolones and significantly reduce their absorption. Ciprofloxacin should be taken 2 hours before or 6 hours after antacids, iron, or sucralfate. Taking the drug with an antacid can result in subtherapeutic antibiotic levels.
Soalan 26
Match each infection control precaution category with its correct description.
Airborne precautions require a negative-pressure room and an N95 or higher-level respirator for diseases such as tuberculosis. Droplet precautions require a mask and eye protection when working within about 3 feet of a client with pertussis or influenza. Contact precautions require gown and gloves for clients with Clostridioides difficile or a draining MRSA wound, while standard precautions apply to all clients and include hand hygiene and PPE based on anticipated exposure.
Soalan 27
Which task is appropriate for the registered nurse to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
Measuring and recording urine output is a stable, predictable task that UAPs are educated to perform under RN supervision. Admission assessment, IV push medication administration, and client teaching require nursing judgment and cannot be delegated to UAPs. Delegation decisions should preserve client safety and match the task to the worker's scope.
Soalan 28
Which task is most appropriate for the registered nurse to delegate to a licensed practical nurse (LPN) in a state where LPNs may administer oral medications?
In many states, LPNs may administer oral medications to stable clients under RN supervision. Initial comprehensive assessment, care planning and evaluation, and blood transfusion administration require the education and judgment of an RN. The RN remains accountable for supervision and follow-up after delegation.
Soalan 29
A nurse is caring for a client on bed rest who is at risk for pressure injury. Which action is most effective?
Regular repositioning and pressure-reducing support surfaces relieve pressure and prevent pressure injuries. Reddened areas should not be massaged because this can damage fragile tissue. High Fowler's positioning increases shear and should not be maintained continuously.
Soalan 30
Client care should be documented immediately after the care is provided rather than charting activities in advance.
Accurate documentation reflects care that has actually been provided and is recorded promptly after the intervention. Charting in advance is inaccurate and can mislead other members of the health care team. Documentation should be factual, timely, and free of judgmental language.
Soalan 31
A nurse is assessing a full-term newborn 1 hour after birth. Which finding should be reported to the health care provider?
Nasal flaring and grunting indicate respiratory distress in a newborn and require prompt evaluation. A heart rate of 140 beats/min, acrocyanosis of the extremities, and respirations of 46 breaths/min with brief pauses are expected findings in a full-term newborn. Respiratory distress can progress quickly, so oxygen saturation and work of breathing should be assessed.
Soalan 32
Two hours after delivery, a client has a firm fundus at the umbilicus and saturates a perineal pad in 20 minutes. Which action should the nurse take first?
A firm fundus with heavy bleeding suggests the blood may be coming from a vaginal or cervical laceration or another site rather than uterine atony. The nurse should inspect the perineum and vagina, monitor vital signs, and notify the provider. Delaying assessment can allow hemorrhage to progress.
Soalan 33
The nurse teaches a client at 28 weeks' gestation how to count fetal movements. Which statement indicates understanding?
Fetal movement counts are usually performed while lying on the side, and fewer than 10 movements in 2 hours should be reported to the provider. Movement does not normally stop in late pregnancy, and a 24-hour wait is too long when movements are reduced. Consistent maternal perception of fetal activity is an important fetal surveillance tool.
Soalan 34
A client in active labor has a fetal heart rate baseline of 150 beats/min with recurrent variable decelerations to 90 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take first?
Variable decelerations are most often caused by umbilical cord compression, so the first action is to change maternal position to relieve pressure on the cord. The nurse should also assess the tracing, consider oxygen and IV fluids, and notify the provider. Increasing oxytocin and waiting 30 minutes could worsen fetal compromise.
Soalan 35
Which findings indicate preeclampsia with severe features? Select all that apply.
Preeclampsia with severe features includes systolic blood pressure of 160 mm Hg or higher, diastolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg or higher, thrombocytopenia, new or worsening neurologic symptoms, and oliguria. Trace protein alone does not define a severe feature. Magnesium sulfate and antihypertensives may be indicated to prevent complications.
Soalan 36
A nurse observes a 2-year-old in the waiting room. Which behavior is most consistent with typical development at this age?
Parallel play and negativism, including frequent use of the word no, are typical toddler behaviors. Toddlers typically use two- to three-word phrases, while complete sentences develop later in the preschool years. Riding a bicycle without training wheels is a school-age milestone, not a toddler milestone.
Soalan 37
A nurse is preparing to give an oral liquid medication to an infant. Which technique is best?
An oral syringe directed toward the side of the mouth lets the infant swallow slowly and reduces aspiration risk. Mixing medication into a full bottle can result in an incomplete dose if the infant does not finish it. Giving medication while flat or squirting toward the back of the throat increases the risk of choking and aspiration.
Soalan 38
A parent calls the clinic about a 6-month-old infant with a rectal temperature of 38.3 C (101 F). Which response by the nurse is best?
For a 6-month-old infant, a temperature of 38.3 C (101 F) can be managed at home with fluids, light clothing, and weight-based acetaminophen while watching for concerning signs. Aspirin must be avoided in children because of the risk of Reye syndrome. Dehydration and delayed care can complicate febrile illness.
Soalan 39
A toddler is admitted with suspected epiglottitis. Which nursing action is the priority?
Epiglottitis is a medical emergency because the swollen epiglottis can suddenly obstruct the airway. The nurse should keep the child calm, avoid throat inspection or anything that increases agitation, and have airway equipment ready. Lying flat, oral intake, and tongue blade examination can worsen obstruction.
Soalan 40
Which assessment findings are consistent with dehydration in an infant? Select all that apply.
Sunken fontanelle, absent tears, and decreased urine output are signs of dehydration in infants. Capillary refill less than 2 seconds and moist mucous membranes indicate adequate perfusion and hydration. Severe dehydration can progress to shock, so prompt rehydration and monitoring are needed.
Soalan 41
A nurse is about to administer an intravenous antibiotic to a hospitalized client. Which two identifiers are acceptable for positive client identification?
Positive identification requires at least two identifiers such as the client's full name and date of birth. Room and bed numbers are location identifiers and are not considered reliable client identifiers. Diagnosis, tray number, age, and physician name do not satisfy the two-identifier standard.
Soalan 42
A client has tested positive for Clostridioides difficile infection. Which type of precautions should the nurse implement?
C. difficile is transmitted by spores on hands and contaminated surfaces, so contact precautions, including gown and gloves, are required. Hand hygiene with soap and water is preferred because alcohol-based hand rub is not sporicidal. Droplet and airborne precautions are used for respiratory pathogens.
Soalan 43
After receiving shift report, which client should the nurse assess first?
The post-surgical client with hypoxemia and tachycardia is at greatest risk for respiratory or hemodynamic deterioration and should be seen first. The other clients are stable or have scheduled, nonurgent needs. Prioritization is guided by the ABCs and risk of physiologic instability.
Soalan 44
The provider orders heparin 5,000 units subcutaneously every 8 hours. The vial contains 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
Using the formula desired divided by available times volume: 5,000 units / 10,000 units per mL equals 0.5 mL. Administering 2, 0.05, or 5 mL would give 20,000, 500, or 50,000 units respectively. Always verify high-alert medication calculations with an independent double-check.
Soalan 45
Match each client situation to the transmission-based precautions that should be used.
Pulmonary tuberculosis requires airborne precautions with an N95 or higher respirator and negative-pressure room. Meningococcal meningitis requires droplet precautions. C. difficile requires contact precautions plus soap-and-water hand hygiene. Neutropenic clients need protective precautions to reduce exposure to infections.
Soalan 46
During a 2-month well-child visit, which vaccines should the nurse anticipate administering?
The 2-month schedule includes hepatitis B, rotavirus, DTaP, Hib, PCV, and inactivated polio vaccine. MMR and varicella begin at 12 months, Tdap and HPV are recommended later in childhood or adolescence, and zoster vaccine is for older adults.
Soalan 47
A nurse is teaching a client who is planning pregnancy about folic acid. Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding?
Daily folic acid of 400 to 800 mcg is recommended before conception and through early pregnancy because it reduces the risk of neural tube defects. Continuing throughout pregnancy supports fetal growth. Folic acid does not prevent gestational diabetes, and it is recommended for all women of childbearing age.
Soalan 48
A 50-year-old client at average risk asks which screening is recommended. Which response by the nurse is best?
Average-risk adults should begin colorectal cancer screening around age 45 to 50 using colonoscopy, fecal immunochemical testing, or other recommended modalities. Screening is preventive and does not require symptoms. Recommendations for other cancers depend on sex, risk factors, and guidelines.
Soalan 49
The nurse is evaluating gross motor development at a 12-month well-child visit. Which finding is expected?
By 12 months, most infants stand alone and may take first steps. Walking backward and kicking a ball are later toddler skills, stair climbing with alternating feet develops around age 3, and running and jumping are preschool milestones. Development should be assessed against age-appropriate ranges.
Soalan 50
A nurse is teaching a group of adolescents about sun safety. Which statement indicates the teaching was effective?
Sunscreen with SPF 30 or higher should be applied generously and reapplied every 2 hours and after swimming, sweating, or towel drying. A base tan provides little protection, UV exposure occurs on cloudy days, and water-resistant products still need reapplication. Sun protection reduces lifetime skin cancer risk.
Soalan 51
A client with depression tells the nurse, "Nobody cares whether I live or die." Which response is most therapeutic?
The nurse should acknowledge the client's distress, express genuine concern, and explore the client's feelings without false reassurance or platitudes. Dismissing the statement, advising positivity, or using guilt can increase isolation. This statement should also prompt suicide risk assessment.
Soalan 52
Which client statement requires immediate suicide prevention interventions?
A specific plan combined with access to lethal means signals imminent risk and requires immediate protective action, including a safe environment, close observation, and psychiatric consultation. Hopelessness, anger, and insomnia are important but do not alone indicate imminent risk without a plan or intent.
Soalan 53
A client with schizophrenia says, "The FBI has put a microchip in my arm." Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?
The nurse should acknowledge the emotion behind the delusion without arguing with or confirming the belief. Challenging the delusion can increase distrust, while ignoring it dismisses the client's experience. Medication adherence and ongoing assessment of safety remain important.
Soalan 54
A client who is at risk for suicide should remain in a safe, supervised environment with one-to-one observation and removal of potentially harmful objects.
Suicide precautions include removing sharps, cords, and other potentially harmful items and maintaining close observation, often one-to-one supervision, until risk is reduced. Constant observation prevents attempts and allows early intervention. The environment is checked routinely for safety hazards.
Soalan 55
A client with generalized anxiety disorder is hyperventilating and reports chest tightness. Which nursing action should the nurse implement first?
Staying with the client and guiding slow breathing helps break the hyperventilation cycle and reduces anxiety. Asking for a detailed stress inventory is overwhelming during acute anxiety, caffeine worsens symptoms, and leaving the client alone is unsafe. Once the client calms, explore triggers and coping strategies.
Soalan 56
A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the provider first?
Loop diuretics such as furosemide increase potassium excretion and can cause hypokalemia, which increases the risk of dysrhythmias and digoxin toxicity. The other values are within normal ranges. The nurse should report hypokalemia and anticipate potassium replacement.
Soalan 57
Which finding best indicates that fluid resuscitation is improving perfusion in a client with hypovolemia?
Urine output of at least 0.5 mL/kg/hour with improving mentation reflects restored renal perfusion and tissue oxygenation. Prolonged capillary refill, weak pulses, cool extremities, and low urine output indicate continued hypoperfusion. Trends in vital signs and laboratory values should also be monitored.
Soalan 58
A client is 8 hours after total knee arthroplasty. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?
Calf pain, swelling, and warmth after major orthopedic surgery suggest deep vein thrombosis, which requires prompt evaluation and anticoagulation therapy. Scant drainage, controlled pain, and a low-grade temperature can be expected in the early postoperative period. Early ambulation, hydration, and compression devices help prevent DVT.
Soalan 59
A client receiving 0.9% normal saline at 150 mL/hour develops crackles, dyspnea, and dependent edema. Which action should the nurse take first?
Crackles, dyspnea, and edema indicate fluid overload, so the infusion should be stopped and the provider notified promptly. Increasing fluids or giving a bolus would worsen the condition. The nurse should elevate the head of bed, monitor oxygenation, and prepare for diuretic therapy as ordered.
Soalan 60
In a client with severe hyperkalemia, intravenous calcium gluconate lowers the serum potassium level.
IV calcium gluconate stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane and protects against dysrhythmias, but it does not remove potassium from the blood. Treatments that lower potassium include insulin with glucose, beta-agonists, diuretics, binding agents, and dialysis. Calcium should be used with ECG monitoring when cardiotoxicity is present.
Soalan 61
The provider orders digoxin 0.25 mg IV. The pharmacy supplies digoxin 0.5 mg/2 mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
The dose ordered is 0.25 mg and the concentration is 0.5 mg in 2 mL, so each milliliter contains 0.25 mg. The nurse should administer 1 mL. Digoxin is a high-alert medication, so the calculation should be independently double-checked and the client's potassium level reviewed.
Soalan 62
A client with type 2 diabetes is starting metformin. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Metformin is taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal effects and is generally weight-neutral or may promote modest weight loss. It should not be stopped just because glucose is normal. Severe GI symptoms or fatigue may signal lactic acidosis, a rare but serious complication that should be reported.
Soalan 63
Which medication should be treated as a high-alert medication requiring an independent double-check?
Heparin is a high-alert medication because dosing errors can cause serious bleeding or thrombosis, so an independent double-check is required. Acetaminophen, multivitamins, and polyethylene glycol have lower risk profiles, although acetaminophen still requires careful dosing. The nurse should follow organizational policy for high-alert drugs.
Soalan 64
A client receiving warfarin has an INR of 4.8 and active bleeding. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?
Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so supratherapeutic INR with bleeding is treated with vitamin K and, in serious cases, prothrombin complex concentrate or fresh frozen plasma. Protamine reverses heparin, calcium gluconate treats hyperkalemia, and naloxone reverses opioids.
Soalan 65
Which actions are correct for safe intravenous medication administration? Select all that apply.
Safe IV administration includes two-client identification, allergy verification, aseptic technique, labeling, flushing, documentation, and monitoring for adverse effects. The nurse must personally verify or prepare medications and never administer an unverified product prepared by another person. Following these steps reduces medication errors and infection risk.
Soalan 66
Which task can the registered nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
Routine vital signs on stable clients are within the UAP scope of practice when delegated and supervised by the RN. The initial assessment, IV push medications, and evaluation of client responses require nursing judgment and cannot be delegated. The RN remains accountable for the delegated task.
Soalan 67
A client's spouse calls and asks for the client's diagnosis. What should the nurse do first?
Under HIPAA, the nurse must verify the caller's identity and obtain the client's consent before sharing protected health information. Family relationship alone does not authorize disclosure. The nurse can confirm that the client is present and ask whether information may be shared, and privacy protections continue after discharge.
Soalan 68
Which technique demonstrates correct body mechanics when lifting a heavy object?
Correct body mechanics use a wide base of support, bending at the hips and knees, and keeping the load close to the center of gravity. Bending at the waist, twisting, and holding objects away from the body increase strain on the spine. Using assistive devices is preferred when a load is heavy.
Soalan 69
Which factors increase a hospitalized client's risk for falls? Select all that apply.
Previous falls, orthostatic hypotension, sedating medications, urinary urgency, and environmental barriers increase fall risk. Full independence without gait changes does not increase risk. The nurse should implement individualized fall precautions, keep the call light within reach, and reassess after medication changes.
Soalan 70
Match each team member to the responsibility that is appropriate to their role.
The RN is accountable for assessment, care planning, and evaluation. The LPN/LVN can administer certain medications and reinforce teaching within scope under supervision. UAPs perform delegated routine tasks for stable clients. Physical therapists evaluate mobility and provide gait training as part of the interprofessional team.
Soalan 71
A client in active labor is having fetal heart rate monitoring. Which pattern is most reassuring?
Moderate variability indicates a well-oxygenated fetal nervous system, and accelerations are reassuring. Absent variability with late decelerations suggests uteroplacental insufficiency, recurrent variable decelerations suggest cord compression, and bradycardia may indicate fetal compromise. The nurse should continue to monitor and report nonreassuring patterns.
Soalan 72
A breastfeeding mother asks how to know when her newborn is hungry. Which is an early feeding cue?
Early hunger cues include rooting, mouthing, hand-to-mouth movements, and increased alertness. Crying is a late hunger cue that can make latching more difficult. Deep sleep and turning away are not feeding cues. Feeding in response to early cues supports successful breastfeeding.
Soalan 73
Which postpartum finding requires immediate intervention?
A boggy uterus with heavy bleeding indicates uterine atony, the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage, and requires fundal massage, medications such as oxytocin, and provider notification. A fundus at the umbilicus on day one, mild perineal discomfort, and scant lochia rubra are expected findings.
Soalan 74
A newborn's temperature is 36.0 C (96.8 F) 1 hour after birth. The priority is to wait and recheck the temperature in 4 hours because mild hypothermia resolves without intervention.
This temperature is below the normal newborn range, and hypothermia increases oxygen and glucose consumption, putting the newborn at risk for cold stress. The nurse should immediately provide warmth through skin-to-skin contact, warm blankets, or a radiant warmer and recheck the temperature frequently. Hypothermia does not resolve by waiting.
Soalan 75
Which interventions reduce the risk of surgical site infection after a cesarean birth? Select all that apply.
Preoperative antibiotics, skin antisepsis, hand hygiene, and early ambulation reduce surgical site infection risk. Surgical dressings should remain clean and dry and are changed using aseptic technique when indicated; leaving a wound open is not an infection prevention measure. The nurse should also assess the incision for redness, swelling, drainage, and warmth.
Soalan 76
The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant. Which finding is consistent with normal development?
At 6 months, infants typically sit with support and roll over. Walking with assistance occurs near 9 to 12 months, pincer grasp develops around 9 to 10 months, and two-word sentences are typical of 2-year-olds. Milestones that are significantly delayed should be reported.
Soalan 77
A 2-year-old with croup has a barking cough and stridor at rest. Which nursing intervention should be implemented first?
Keeping a child with croup calm and upright reduces airway obstruction; cool mist and prescribed corticosteroids or nebulized epinephrine are standard treatments. Crying and flat positioning can worsen stridor, and sedatives may depress respiratory drive. The nurse should monitor oxygen saturation and work of breathing.
Soalan 78
Which principle is correct when calculating medication doses for a child?
Pediatric doses are weight-based, and every order must be checked against the recommended mg/kg range using the child's current weight. Adult doses and rounding up are unsafe. Accurate weight measurement is required before dose calculation. Independent double-checks are especially important for pediatric medications.
Soalan 79
Which findings should the nurse teach parents to recognize as signs of dehydration in an infant? Select all that apply.
Decreased urine output, a sunken fontanel, dry mucous membranes, and absent tears indicate dehydration. Increased urine output is not a sign of dehydration. Parents should also watch for lethargy, poor skin turgor, and decreased activity and should seek care early because infants can dehydrate quickly.
Soalan 80
A written asthma action plan is complete when it lists the rescue inhaler dose and when to seek emergency care.
A complete asthma action plan includes daily controller medications, trigger avoidance, recognition of worsening symptoms, rescue inhaler instructions, and clear emergency steps. Listing only rescue medication and emergency contact is incomplete. The nurse should review the plan with the family and confirm the child can use the inhaler or spacer correctly.