Practice 80 original Cambridge C1 Advanced questions covering Reading and Use of English: grammar, vocabulary, reading skills, writing and exam strategy with detailed solutions.
Level: Cambridge C1 AdvancedDifficulty: advanced80 questions90 min
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Question 1
Despite the complexity of the data, the researcher managed to ______ the key findings in a single page.
To summarise is to express the main points briefly. The context shows a complex study reduced to one page, so summarise fits the idea of condensing information.
Question 2
Had the committee reviewed the proposal earlier, they ______ the deadline.
This is a third conditional in inverted form. Had plus past participle replaces if, and the main clause uses would have plus past participle to describe an unreal past result.
Question 3
The author's argument is compelling, but it ______ on a single untested assumption.
Rests on means depends on. The present simple is correct because the sentence describes a current logical dependence rather than a finished action.
Question 4
Choose the word closest in meaning to 'meticulous'.
Meticulous means showing great attention to detail. Careful is the closest match, while casual, rapid and vague describe qualities that are too weak or imprecise.
Question 5
No sooner ______ the results than the board called an emergency meeting.
No sooner inverts the auxiliary and uses the past perfect. The pattern is no sooner had plus subject plus past participle than the following event.
Question 6
In academic texts, the phrase 'by contrast' signals that the writer is about to ______.
By contrast is a discourse marker used to introduce an opposing perspective. Recognising it helps readers follow the structure of an academic argument.
Question 7
It is vital that every candidate ______ the instructions on the answer sheet before writing.
After expressions such as it is vital that, the subjunctive uses the base form of the verb. Read is therefore correct even though the subject is singular.
Question 8
Choose the correct collocation: The findings cast serious ______ on the original theory.
Cast doubt on is a fixed collocation meaning to make something seem less certain. The noun doubt is required after the verb cast.
Question 9
The management insisted that the figures ______ before the meeting.
After insist that, the subjunctive uses be plus the past participle in the passive. This structure expresses a formal recommendation or requirement.
Question 10
When answering C1 Advanced Reading Part 8 multiple matching questions, the most efficient first step is to ______.
Reading the questions first gives you a clear search target. You can then scan each text for key ideas instead of rereading the whole passage repeatedly.
Question 11
The director, whose previous films had won several awards, ______ to direct the sequel.
The main clause needs a past simple passive because someone else selected the director. The relative clause does not affect the main verb form.
Question 12
Choose the word that best completes the sentence: The new policy was intended to ______ the gap between rich and poor.
Narrow the gap is the standard collocation for reducing inequality. Widen would have the opposite meaning in this context.
Question 13
If she had not missed the train, she ______ late for the interview.
The third conditional expresses an unreal past situation. The negative main clause uses would not have plus the past participle.
Question 14
The word 'ambiguous' is closest in meaning to ______.
Ambiguous means having more than one possible meaning. It is the opposite of clearly defined, so open to more than one interpretation is correct.
Question 15
Not only ______ the results, but the report also omitted the methodology.
When not only begins a sentence, the auxiliary comes before the subject. The past simple auxiliary did is required before the main verb.
Question 16
Choose the best word: The witness gave a ______ account of the incident that matched the security footage.
Credible means believable or trustworthy. Credulous means too ready to believe, so it would not describe an accurate witness account.
Question 17
By the end of this decade, researchers ______ a cure for the disease.
By plus a future time point often takes the future perfect. May have developed expresses possibility before a future deadline.
Question 18
In a C1 Advanced multiple-choice reading task, an incorrect option is often ______.
Distractors frequently repeat words from the text but express a claim the passage does not support. Check each option against the evidence.
Question 19
The professor insisted on ______ every source before the essay was submitted.
Insist on is followed by a possessive or object form plus a gerund, as in our verifying. The other forms do not fit this structure.
Question 20
Choose the correct phrasal verb: The committee will ______ the proposal at next month's meeting.
Take up means to begin considering or dealing with a matter. The other phrasal verbs have unrelated meanings such as departing or assuming control.
Question 21
It was only after the trial that the full extent of the fraud ______.
The simple past is correct because the sentence describes a completed past event. Clear is an adjective complement after became.
Question 22
The word 'conducive' is closest in meaning to ______.
Conducive means making something possible or likely, so favourable is the closest synonym. The other options do not express helpful conditions.
Question 23
Which sentence correctly uses inversion with 'hardly'?
Hardly at the start requires inversion: hardly had plus subject plus past participle. The other versions use incorrect word order.
Question 24
Choose the best word: The results of the survey were ______ with the official statistics.
At odds with is a fixed phrase meaning in disagreement with. The preposition at is essential in this collocation.
Question 25
The government is considering ______ stricter regulations on online advertising.
Consider is followed by a gerund, not an infinitive or base form. Introducing fits the grammatical pattern.
Question 26
In the C1 Advanced essay task, the introduction should ______.
A strong introduction states your position clearly and shows that you have understood the task. Repeating the question wastes words.
Question 27
The proposal, ______ was submitted last week, has already attracted criticism.
Non-defining relative clauses use which for things. That is not used after a comma, and the clause adds extra information.
Question 28
Choose the best word: The decline in sales was ______ by an aggressive marketing campaign.
Offset means to balance or reduce the effect of something. The passive form was offset needs the past participle.
Question 29
She would rather the committee ______ its decision until all evidence had been reviewed.
Would rather plus a subject uses a past tense for a present or future preference. Postponed expresses a polite hypothetical choice.
Question 30
Choose the best word: The author's writing is admired for its ______ and precision.
Clarity is the noun meaning the quality of being clear. The sentence needs a noun after its, and clarity is the standard choice.
Question 31
______ the evidence is inconclusive, many parents have already changed their children's routines.
Even though introduces a concession clause with a subject and verb. Despite and in spite require a noun phrase, not a full clause.
Question 32
Choose the word closest in meaning to 'scrutinise'.
Scrutinise means to examine something very carefully. The other options describe different actions such as rejecting or summarising.
Question 33
If the airport had not been closed, we ______ our connecting flight.
This third conditional describes an unreal past situation. The main clause needs would have plus the past participle caught.
Question 34
Choose the correct word: The committee rejected the plan because it was not ______ with current regulations.
Compatible with means able to exist or work together. The sentence describes a plan that does not match current regulations.
Question 35
Barely ______ the news before she began making phone calls.
Barely at the start causes inversion with the past perfect. The pattern is barely had plus subject plus past participle before the second event.
Question 36
In academic writing, 'moreover' is used to ______.
Moreover signals that another supporting point is being added to strengthen the argument. It does not express contrast, result or example.
Question 37
The manager demanded that the report ______ by noon.
Demand that introduces the subjunctive, so the passive uses be plus the past participle. The base form is required after the subject.
Question 38
Choose the best word: The two studies reached ______ conclusions despite using different methods.
Comparable is the adjective meaning similar enough to be usefully compared. The sentence needs an adjective before conclusions.
Question 39
It is essential that the applicant ______ all supporting documents with the form.
After it is essential that, the subjunctive uses the base form submit. This structure is common in formal recommendations.
Question 40
Choose the correct collocation: The company managed to ______ its market share despite the recession.
Maintain market share is the correct verb-object collocation. The infinitive after to is needed, so maintain fits grammatically.
Question 41
In C1 Advanced Reading Part 6, the missing sentences are usually ______.
Part 6 is a gapped text task. Six sentences have been removed from a single text and you must place them back in the correct gaps.
Question 42
The laboratory equipment, ______ had been damaged, was replaced before the experiment.
Some of which is a correct relative structure in a non-defining clause. That cannot follow a quantifier phrase such as some of.
Question 43
Choose the best word: The lecture was intended to ______ students to question established ideas.
Encourage means to give support or confidence. The purpose clause shows that the lecture aims to make students more questioning.
Question 44
Never before ______ such a dramatic shift in public opinion.
Never before at the start triggers inversion with the present perfect. The auxiliary comes before the subject: never before have we witnessed.
Question 45
The word 'obsolete' is closest in meaning to ______.
Obsolete means no longer used or current. Out of date is the closest synonym in this context.
Question 46
Which sentence correctly uses inversion with 'under no circumstances'?
Negative adverbials such as under no circumstances require subject-auxiliary inversion. The first sentence places should before you correctly.
Question 47
Choose the best word: The sudden resignation of the director left the project in a state of ______.
Uncertainty is the uncountable noun needed after in a state of. The adjective and adverb forms do not fit this position.
Question 48
The hypothesis was rejected because the results ______ the predicted pattern.
The active past simple negative did not follow correctly describes the results failing to match the pattern. The passive forms are not appropriate here.
Question 49
Choose the correct phrasal verb: The board agreed to ______ the merger despite shareholder concerns.
Go through with means to complete something that was planned, especially despite difficulties. The other phrasal verbs have unrelated meanings.
Question 50
Not until the final report was published ______ the scale of the problem.
Not until at the start of a sentence requires inversion in the main clause. The auxiliary did comes before the subject and the verb stays in base form.
Question 51
When a C1 Advanced reading question asks about the writer's attitude, you should look for ______.
Attitude questions depend on opinion markers such as adjectives, adverbs and phrases that show approval or criticism. Facts alone are not enough.
Question 52
Choose the best word: The evidence was ______ enough to convince the jury.
Persuasive is the adjective meaning convincing. The sentence needs an adjective after was to describe the evidence.
Question 53
The company had no choice but ______ the factory.
Have no choice but is followed by to plus the infinitive. This fixed structure expresses that no alternative existed.
Question 54
Choose the correct preposition: The new evidence is consistent ______ the earlier findings.
Consistent with is the fixed prepositional phrase. The other prepositions do not form correct collocations in this context.
Question 55
In Part 7 of the C1 Advanced Reading paper, which task appears?
Part 7 is multiple matching with ten questions based on short texts. Parts 6 and 8 have different task formats.
Question 56
Only after the auditors arrived ______ the true scale of the losses.
Only after at the start causes inversion in the main clause. The auxiliary did appears before the subject and the main verb stays in base form.
Question 57
Choose the best word: The report's ______ tone made it difficult to take the criticism seriously.
Dismissive means showing that something is not worth considering. The adjective describes the tone of the report.
Question 58
The judge ordered that the witness ______ a full statement.
Order that is followed by the subjunctive, so the base form provide is used. This formal structure is common in legal contexts.
Question 59
Choose the word closest in meaning to 'plausible'.
Plausible means seeming reasonable or likely to be true. It describes an explanation or argument that is believable.
Question 60
In a C1 Advanced essay, a paragraph that begins with 'On the other hand' should ______.
On the other hand is a contrastive connector that signals a different perspective. Using it correctly improves cohesion in academic writing.
Question 61
In C1 Advanced Reading and Use of English Part 1, there are four options for each gap.
Part 1 is a multiple-choice cloze, and each gap offers four options labelled A to D. Candidates choose the word that fits best.
Question 62
In Part 4 key word transformations, you can change the key word into a different part of speech.
The key word must be used exactly as given and cannot be changed. Candidates should not alter its form or add extra words beyond the limit.
Question 63
Dictionaries are permitted in the C1 Advanced Reading and Use of English paper.
No dictionaries are allowed in Cambridge English exams. Vocabulary must be learned and used from memory during the test.
Question 64
Reading Part 5 consists of one long text followed by six four-option multiple-choice questions.
Part 5 presents a long text and six multiple-choice questions that test detail, gist, attitude and inference.
Question 65
In the C1 Advanced essay, it is acceptable to ignore the question and write about any related topic.
The essay must address the task fully. Going off topic lowers the Task Achievement score even if the language is accurate.
Question 66
Part 3 of Reading and Use of English tests word formation using a base word for each gap.
Part 3 gives eight gaps with base words that must be transformed, often by adding prefixes or suffixes.
Question 67
C1 Advanced writing tasks require you to produce exactly one paragraph.
Essays and other writing tasks need clear paragraphing. A single paragraph makes the text harder to follow and limits organisation marks.
Question 68
Transferring answers carefully to the answer sheet is part of exam strategy.
Answers must be transferred clearly before the end of the paper, and careless transfer can cost marks even for correct work.
Question 69
Which of the following are useful when answering C1 Advanced Reading Part 8 multiple matching questions?
Underlining question keywords, scanning for specific references and checking evidence are efficient strategies. Rereading everything twice wastes time.
Question 70
Which of the following are characteristic of formal academic writing?
Controlled complex sentences, appropriate passives and precise cohesion are formal features. Contractions are usually avoided in academic writing.
Question 71
Which grammar structures commonly appear in C1 Advanced key word transformations?
Inversion, conditionals and reported speech are frequent transformation targets. The fourth option describes an incorrect structure rather than a tested pattern.
Question 72
Which of the following are examples of useful exam strategy during the Reading and Use of English paper?
Time allocation and eliminating distractors help candidates work efficiently. Skipping instructions or leaving blanks wastes marks.
Question 73
Which vocabulary-building methods are effective for C1 Advanced?
Word families, contextual collocations and spaced review build durable vocabulary. Lists without examples rarely transfer to exam tasks.
Question 74
In Part 6 gapped text tasks, which clues help you place a removed sentence?
Pronouns, connectors and repeated vocabulary create cohesion between sentences. The word count of a gap is irrelevant to placement.
Question 75
Match each Reading and Use of English part to its task format.
Part 1 is multiple-choice cloze, Part 2 is open cloze, Part 3 is word formation and Part 4 is key word transformations.
Question 76
Match each Reading part to its task type.
Part 5 uses multiple choice, Part 6 is gapped text, Part 7 matches short texts and Part 8 matches sections of one text.
Question 77
Match each connector to its function.
However signals contrast, moreover adds a point, therefore shows a result and for instance introduces an example.
Question 78
Match each vocabulary term to its definition.
These terms describe key features of advanced vocabulary use, and each definition matches one term tested across the C1 Advanced paper.
Question 79
Match each grammar structure to its example.
Each example illustrates a distinct advanced structure commonly tested in Reading and Use of English Part 4 transformations.
Question 80
Match each writing strategy to its purpose.
Planning, clear introductions, cohesive links and final checking all support higher scores in C1 Advanced writing tasks.